UNIT 1
UNIT 2
UNIT 3
UNIT 4
GENETICS
100
Which of the following is an example of inductive reasoning?
a. You believe that sterilizing food will keep it edible longer, so you sterilize your food when you will keep it for a while.
b. You notice that when you eat regularly, you are not hungry, and you conclude that eating prevents hunger.
c. You have a hypothesis that living organisms are made of cells, you predict that the organism you are looking at will be made of cells.
d. You think that chitin is the carbohydrate in insects, so you expect to find chitin when you grind up insects and measure the amount of chitin.
b. You notice that when you eat regularly, you are not hungry, and you conclude that eating prevents hunger.
100
Which of the following pairs correctly matches the type of microscope you would use to answer the biological question?
a. Transmission electron microscope – Where are ribosomes located in plant cells?
b. A light microscope – What is the shape of the protein lactase?
c. Scanning electron microscope – What is the shape of cellular organelles?
d. Scanning electron microscope – How fast does a flagellum spin?
e. The unaided eye – What is the shape of the bacteria in a sample?
a. Transmission electron microscope – Where are ribosomes located in plant cells?
TEM: slicing a cell to see the interior structures like organelles
SEM: the shape of the OUTSIDE of a cell. not the interior
Light microscope: using fluorescence to see processes like action potentials firing
100
During elongation of translation, what happens most directly following a charged tRNA binding to the A site?
a. the ribosome moves along the mRNA.
b. a peptide bond is formed and the peptide is released from the tRNA in the P site.
c. the empty tRNA exits from the E site.
d. a bond is formed between the amino acid on the tRNA in the A site and the amino acid that is farthest from the ribosome.
b. a peptide bond is formed and the peptide is released from the tRNA in the P site.
100
This question refers to a species where n = 16, like badgers. You see 16 unduplicated chromosomes being pulled towards a centrosome on the left and 16 unduplicated chromosomes moving to a centrosome on the right. From this information you know that the cell is in
a. anaphase II.
b. metaphase I.
c. telophase I.
d. anaphase I.
e. anaphase.
a. anaphase II.
100
You perform a monohybrid cross. You start with true-breeding tall (T) plants and true-breeding short (t) plants in the P generation. You have 1000 plants in the F2 generation. How many of the 1000 F2plants do you predict will be short true-breeding plants?
A) 750
B) 500
C) 1000
D) 250
E) 0
D) 250
200
Which of the following is NOT a unifying theory of biology?
a. The shape of a structure, like a protein, is independent of its function.
b. Energy is required to maintain complexity.
c. The basis for inheritance is nucleic acids.
d. Cells are the basic units of life.
a. The shape of a structure, like a protein, is independent of its function.
200
Which of the following is the biggest?
a. a macromolecule, like DNA
b. a protein
c. an amino acid
d. a mitochondrion
d. a mitochondrion
200
During DNA replication, the lagging strand
a. makes a loop in the replisome so the polymerase can make new DNA 5’ to 3’.
b. is made from one priming event and then continuous synthesis of DNA with one DNA polymerase.
c. is parallel, whereas the leading strand is antiparallel.
d. is synthesized from 3’ to 5’, whereas the leading strand is synthesized from 5’ to 3’.
a. makes a loop in the replisome so the polymerase can make new DNA 5’ to 3’.
200
Which of the following is LEAST likely to happen during cellular signaling? A hydrophilic ligand binds to
a. an intracellular receptor which activates a G protein that changes gene expression.
b. a transmembrane receptor that activates a G protein that opens an ion channel.
c. a receptor tyrosine kinase that autophosphorylates and changes glucose processing.
d. a cell-surface receptor that activates a signal cascade that increases [cAMP].
a. an intracellular receptor which activates a G protein that changes gene expression.
200
If an individual has one dominant allele and one recessive allele for a characteristic, then for their genotype for that characteristic they are
A)dominant.
B)recessive.
C)homozygous.
D)anueploid.
E)heterozygous.
E)heterozygous.
300
Solution A has a higher concentration of free hydrogen ions ([H+]) than solution B. The pH of solution A will be
a. the same as the pH of solution B.
b. higher than the pH of solution B.
c. lower pH than the pH of solution B.
d. There is not enough information to answer this question.
c. lower pH than the pH of solution B.
300
You test the fluid mosaic model by fusing two cells. The first cell has an orange substrate in the plasma membrane. The second cell has an enzyme in the plasma membrane that can turn the substrate from orange to blue, if it touches it. You fuse the two cells and look at them after several hours. Which result would support the fluid mosaic model?
a. all of the fused cell is orange.
b. the fused cell has bands of blue alternating with bands of orange.
c. half of the fused cell is orange and half is blue.
d. all of the fused cell is blue.
d. all of the fused cell is blue.
300
Prokaryotic transcription
a. terminates when a hairpin causes RNA polymerase to release the DNA.
b. starts at the start codon.
c. elongates the new mRNA as DNA polymerase adds new nucleotides to the 5’ end.
d. unwinds the DNA permanently so that the gene stays accessible to more RNA polymerase.
a. terminates when a hairpin causes RNA polymerase to release the DNA.
300
Which of the following correctly describes the roles of the components of the anaphase checkpoint?
a. Active APC marks securin for destruction when the chromosomes are aligned.
b. Separase holds sister chromatids together until the chromosomes are aligned.
c. Cohesin removes inhibition of separase when the chromosomes are aligned.
d. Separase inactivates
securin when the chromosomes are aligned.
a. Active APC marks securin for destruction when the chromosomes are aligned.
300
Assume Mendelian genetics for this question. You perform a monohybrid cross of a tall plant and a short plant. Tall allele is T. Short allele is t. In the F1 generation you would expect a phenotype ratio of
A)1 short plant : 2 medium height plants : 1 tall plant
B)all tall plants
C)3 short plants : 1 tall pants
D)all short plants
E)3 tall plants : 1 short plants
B)all tall plants
400
Which of the following is a carbohydrate?
a. C2H4
b. ribonucleic acids
c. C6H12O2
d. C12H24
e. CH2O
e. CH2O
400
You have a metabolic pathway with three enzymes – enzyme 1, enzyme 2 and enzyme 3. Enzyme 1 converts substrate A to intermediate B. Enzyme 2 converts intermediate B into intermediate C. Enzyme 3 converts intermediate C into product D. You add a molecule E, which is an allosteric inhibitor of enzyme 1. You would predict that adding the inhibitor will
a. increase [product D]
b. increase [enzyme 1]
c. decrease [product D]
d. decrease [enzyme 1]
c. decrease [product D]
400
Which of the following does happen during the light reactions of photosynthesis, and occurs most directly after the energy in the electron is used to make a concentration gradient?
a. Photosystem II absorbs a photon, splits water to H+ and oxygen, and transfers the energy to an electron.
b. Photosystem I absorbs a photon, and transfers the energy to a partially excited electron.
c. The b6-f complex recombines oxygen and hydrogen to make water.
d. NADP reductase converts NADPH to NADP+.
b. Photosystem I absorbs a photon, and transfers the energy to a partially excited electron.
400
Bacteria with the lac operon easily convert lactose to allolactose. The lac operon is activated when
a. the repressor is bound to the operator on the DNA.
b. allolactose is bound to the repressor.
c. lactose binds to the activator region of the DNA.
d. the bacteria need to make lactose as an energy source.
b. allolactose is bound to the repressor.
400
Mendel used monohybrid crosses to study inheritance using pea plants. In a monohybrid cross of pea plants,
A) the plants in the F2 generation are in a ratio of 1 homozygous dominant: 2 heterozygous: 1 homozygous recessive plants.
B) the two plants in the P generation have the same genotype.
C) the two plants in the P generation have the same phenotype.
D) the plants of the F1 generation are in the ratio of 3 dominant phenotype: 1 recessive phenotype.
E) the plants in the P generation are hybrids.
A) the plants in the F2 generation are in a ratio of 1 homozygous dominant: 2 heterozygous: 1 homozygous recessive plants.
500
Refute means provide evidence against. In class, we discussed how Pasteur was testing the germ hypothesis and the spontaneous generation hypothesis. What data refuted the spontaneous generation hypothesis?
a. Microorganisms grew in the flask when the swan neck was intact.
b. Heating the broth sterilized it by killing all the microorganisms in the broth.
c. Microorganisms never grew in the flask of sterilized broth when the neck was intact.
d. Microorganisms did not grow in the flask when the swan neck was broken.
e. Microorganisms grew in the flask when the swan neck was broken.
c. Microorganisms never grew in the flask of sterilized broth when the neck was intact.
500
The sodium-potassium antiporter normally transports sodium and potassium across the membrane. This antiporter sets up concentration gradients across the membrane. The typical concentrations are
a. [sodium] higher inside than outside and [potassium] lower inside than outside.
b. [sodium] lower inside than outside and [potassium] higher inside than outside.
c. both [sodium] and [potassium] higher inside than outside.
d. [sodium] and [potassium] equal on either side of the membrane.
b. [sodium] lower inside than outside and [potassium] higher inside than outside.
500
In eukaryotes, gene expression is regulated by
a. enhancers binding directly to promoter proteins so RNA polymerase can bind to histones.
b. activators binding to enhancers on the DNA, with a complex of transcription factors.
c. operons.
d. coactivation of transcription and translation.
b. activators binding to enhancers on the DNA, with a complex of transcription factors.
500
For this question think of a diploid animal with n = 18, for example a meerkat or starfish. How many double helices of DNA (chromatids) are in the nucleus of one cell during the G2 phase of the mitotic cell cycle?
a. 72
b. 9
c. 18
d. 36
a. 72
500
Refute means evidence against. Which result below would refute Mendel’s principle of independent assortment?
A) the 3 recessive : 1 dominant ratio of phenotypes in the F2 generation of a monohybrid cross.
B) the presence of new combinations of phenotypes in the F2 generation of a dihybrid cross
C) only the parental generation combinations of phenotypes in the F2 generation of a dihybrid cross
D) the absence of dominant phenotypes in the F1 generation of a monohybrid cross
C) only the parental generation combinations of phenotypes in the F2 generation of a dihybrid cross