GI, GERD, PUD
Liver, Biliary
Pediatric Emergency
Burns
Integumentary
100
  • 1. A patient reports frequent heartburn twice a week for the past 4 months. What other symptoms reported by the patient may indicate the patient has GERD? SELECT-ALL-THAT-APPLY:*
    •  A. Bitter taste in mouth
    •  B. Dry cough
    •  C. Melena
    •  D. Difficulty swallowing
    •  E. Smooth, red tongue
    •  F. Murphy's Sign

The answers are A, B, D. These are signs and symptoms seen with GERD. Melena is seen with gastrointestinal bleeding as in peptic ulcer disease. Smooth, red tongue is seen with vitamin B12 deficiency, and Murphy's Signs is seen with cholecystitis.

100
  • 1. Which condition is NOT a known cause of cirrhosis?*
    •  A. Obesity
    •  B. Alcohol consumption
    •  C. Blockage of the bile duct
    •  D. Hepatitis C
    •  E. All are known causes of cirrhosis

The answer is E. All of these conditions can cause cirrhosis.

100

Which of the following organs is not directly

involved in the compensatory mechanisms for

shock?

 A. Kidney

 B. Pancreas

 C. Heart

 D. Liver



B. Pancreas
The organs involved in the compensatory
mechanism process for shock include: heart, brain,
liver, blood vessels, kidney, and adrenal glands. The
pancreas is not directly related to the compensatory
process.

100
  • 6. You receive a patient who has experienced a burn on the right leg. You note the burn contains small blisters and is extremely pinkish red and shiny/moist. The patient reports severe pain. You document this burn as:*
    •  A. 1st Degree (superficial)
    •  B. 2nd Degree (partial-thickness)
    •  C. 3rd Degree (full-thickness)
    •  D. 4th Degree (deep full-thickness)

The answer is B. These are the classic characteristics of a 2nd degree (partial-thickness) burn.

100

A client is assessing a client who has an exacerbation of herpes zoster. Which of the following manifestations of the clients skin should the nurse expect? 

1. Confluent honey colored crusted lesions

2. large tender nodule on a hair follicule

3. Unilateral localized nodule skin lesions

4. Fluid filled vesicular rash in the genital region 

3. Unilateral localized nodule skin lesions. 

This is herpes zoster or shingles. Remember it follows the nerve root (dermatone) 

Honey colored lesions are impetigo. 


200
  • 6. You're collecting a patient's medication history that has GERD. Which medication below is NOT typically used to treat GERD?*
    •  A. Colesevelam "Welchol"
    •  B. Omeprazole "Prilosec"
    •  C. Metoclopramide "Reglan"
    •  D. Ranitidine HCL "Zantac"

The answer is A. Options B is a proton-pump Inhibitors (PPIs) and it decreases stomach acid and helps the esophagus heal. Option C is a type of prokinetic drug and prevents delayed gastric emptying by improving pressure in lower esophageal sphincter and it improves peristalsis of the GI tract. Option D is a histamine receptor blocker and it blocks histamine. When histamine is released it causes the parietal cells to release HCL but this response will be blocked so gastric acid secretion will be decreased. Option A is a drug used in gallbladder disease.

200
  • 3. A patient with late-stage cirrhosis develops portal hypertension. Which of the following options below are complications that can develop from this condition? Select all that apply:*
    •  A. Increase albumin levels
    •  B. Ascites
    •  C. Splenomegaly
    •  D. Fluid volume deficient
    •  E. Esophageal varices

The answer are B, C, and E. Portal Hypertension is where the portal vein becomes narrow due to scar tissue in the liver, which is restricting the flow of blood to the liver. Therefore, pressure becomes increased in the portal vein and affects the organs connected via the vein to the liver. The patient may experience ascites, enlarged spleen "splenomegaly", and esophageal varices etc.

200

Which of the following interventions is most

important for hypovolemic shock?

 A. Fluid administration

 B. Inotrope administration

 C. Removal of obstruction

 D. Epinephrine administration



A. Fluid administration

 The most important intervention for hypovolemic shock is

administration of isotonic crystalloid fluids to restore

circulating volume. If unresponsive, the healthcare

provider could begin inotrope therapy. However, fluid

replacement should always come first.



200
  • 11. A patient has experienced full-thickness burns to the face and neck. As the nurse it is priority to:*
    •  A. Prevent hypothermia
    •  B. Assess the blood pressure
    •  C. Assess the airway
    •  D. Prevent infection

The answer is C. Due to the location of the burns (face and neck), the patient is at major risk for respiratory issues due to damage to the upper airways and the risk of an inhalation injury.

200

A nurse is caring for a client who has regular occupational exposure to sunlight and presents for evaluation of several skin lesions. Which of the following should alert the nurse to the possibility of basal cell carcinoma?

1. Pearly papule 0.5 cm wide with raised indistinct borders on shoulder

2. Several flat pigmented circumscribed areas of various sizes over bridge of nose

3. A raised circumscribed lesion on the face with yellow white purulent material 

4. Irregularly shaped brown lesion with light blue areas on back 

1. Pearly papule 0.5 cm wide with raised indistinct borders on shoulder


#2 is freckles, #3 is acne and #4 is malignant melanoma 

300
  • 7. A patient arrives to the clinic for evaluation of epigastric pain. The patient describes the pain to be relieved by food intake. In addition, the patient reports awaking in the middle of the night with a gnawing pain in the stomach. Based on the patient's description this appears to be what type of peptic ulcer?*
    •  A. Duodenal
    •  B. Gastric
    •  C. Esophageal
    •  D. Refractory

The answer is A. The patient signs and symptoms describe a duodenal ulcer. Gastric ulcer tend to not cause pain in the middle of the night and epigastric pain in worst with food.

300
  • 9. You're providing an in-service to new nurse graduates about esophageal varices in patients with cirrhosis. You ask the graduates to list activities that should be avoided by a patient with this condition. Which activities listed are correct: Select all that apply*
    •  A. Excessive coughing
    •  B. Sleeping on the back
    •  C. Drinking juice
    •  D. Alcohol consumption
    •  E. Straining during a bowel movement
    •  F. Vomiting

The answers are A, D, E, and F. Esophageal varices are dilated vessels that are connected from the throat to the stomach. They can become enlarged due to portal hypertension in cirrhosis and can rupture (this is a medical emergency). The patient should avoid activities that could rupture these vessels, such as excessive cough, vomiting, drinking alcohol, and constipation (straining increases thoracic pressure.)

300

A 3-year-old girl had a near-drowning incident when she fell into a wading pool. Which intervention would be of the highest priority?

a) Inserting a nasogastric tube to decompress stomach
b) Assuring the child stays still during an X-ray
c) Suctioning the upper airway to ensure airway patency
d) Covering the child with warming blankets

c) Suctioning the upper airway to ensure airway patency


Airway interventions must be initated immediatedly due to potentially devastating effects on childs brain

300
  • 15. A patient arrives to the ER due to experiencing burns while in an enclosed warehouse. Which assessment findings below demonstrate the patient may have experienced an inhalation injury?*
    •  A. Carbonaceous sputum
    •  B. Hair singeing on the head and nose
    •  C. Lhermitte's Sign
    •  D. Bright red lips
    •  E. Hoarse voice
    •  F. Tachycardia

The answers are A, B, D, E, and F. These are all signs of a possible inhalation injury. Bright red lips and tachycardia are present in carbon monoxide poisoning as well.

300

A nurse discovers scabies when assessing a client who has just been transferred to the medical-surgical unit from the day surgery unit. To prevent scabies infection in other clients, the nurse should:

a) wash hands, apply a pediculicide to the client’s scalp, and remove any observable mites.

b) isolate the client’s bed linens until the client is no longer infectious.

c) notify the nurse in the day surgery unit of a potential scabies outbreak.

d) place the client on enteric precautions. 

B. To prevent the spread of scabies in other hospitalized clients, the nurse should isolate the client’s bed linens until the client is no longer infectious — usually 24 hours after treatment begins. Other required precautions include using good hand-washing technique and wearing gloves when applying the pediculicide and during all contact with the client. Although the nurse should notify the nurse in the day surgery unit of the client’s condition, a scabies epidemic is unlikely because scabies is spread through skin or sexual contact. This client does not require enteric precautions because the mites are not found on feces. 

400
  • 11. Which statement is INCORRECT about Histamine-receptor blockers?*
    •  A. "H2 blockers block histamine which causes the chief cells to decrease the secretion of hydrochloric acid."
    •  B. "Ranitidine and Famotidine are two types of histamine-receptor blocker medications."
    •  C. "Antacids and H2 blockers should not be given together."
    •  D. All the statements are CORRECT.

The answer is A. This statement is false. H2 blockers block histamine which causes the PARTIETAL (not chief) cells to decrease the secretion of hydrochloric acid.

400
  • 4. A patient is being transferred to your unit with acute cholecystitis. In report the transferring nurse tells you that the patient has a positive Murphy’s Sign. You know that this means:*
    •  A. The patient stops breathing in when the examiner palpates under the ribs on the right upper side of the abdomen at the midclavicular line.
    •  B. The patient stops breathing out when the examiner palpates under the ribs on the right upper side of the abdomen at the midclavicular line.
    •  C. The patient verbalizes pain when the lower right quadrant is palpated.
    •  D. The patient reports pain when pressure is applied to the right lower quadrant but then reports an increase in pain intensity when the pressure is released.

The answer is A. Murphy’s Sign can occur with cholecystitis. This occurs when the patient is placed in the supine position and the examiner palpates under the ribs on the right upper side of the abdomen. The examiner will have the patient breathe out and then take a deep breath in. The examiner will simultaneously (while the patient is breathing in) palpate on this area under the ribs at the midclavicular line (hence the location of the gallbladder). It is a POSITIVE Murphy’s Sign when the patient stops breathing in during palpation due to pain.

400

When a poison has been ingested the parents should be instructed to do the following first:

1. Induce vomiting

2. Call poison control

3. administer an emetic

4. get to an emergency facility 

2. Call poison control

not all poisons should be vomited. poison control will provide the most accurate information and next steps 

400
  • 18. What are some patient priorities during the emergent phase of burn management?*
    •  A. Fluid volume
    •  B. Respiratory status
    •  C. Psychosocial
    •  D. Wound closure
    •  E. Nutrition

The answer is A and B. This phase starts from the onset of the burn and ends with the restoration of capillary permeability. Wound closure, and nutrition would be during the acute phase, and would continue into the rehabilitative phase. Psychosocial would be in the rehab phase.

400

1. The nurse is caring for a child with tinea pedis. Which of the following assessment findings would the 

nurse expect to note?

a. Red scaling rash on soles and between toes

b. Patches of scaling in the scalp with central hair loss

c. Inflamed boggy mass filled with pustules

d. Erythema, scaling, maceration in the inguinal creases and inner thighs


a. Red scaling rash on soles and between toes


Rationale: Tinea pedis is a fungal infection of the feet that manifests as pink-to--red scales and usually 

causes itching, stinging, or burning sensations. Patches of scaling in the scalp with central hair loss are 

usually associated with tinea capitis. Inflamed boggy mass filled with pustules usually are characteristic 

of folliculitis. Erythema, scaling, maceration in the inguinal creases and inner thighs describes a fungal 

infection, tinea cruris

500
  • 13. Select all the medications a physician may order to treat a H. Pylori infection that is causing a peptic ulcer?*
    •  A. Proton-Pump Inhibitors
    •  B. Antacids
    •  C. Anticholinergics
    •  D. 5-Aminosalicylates
    •  E. Antibiotics
    •  F. H2 Blockers
    •  G. Bismuth Subsalicylates

The answers are: A, E, F, and G. All these medications can be used to treat an h. pylori infection that is causing a peptic ulcer.

500
  • 7. Your recent admission has acute cholecystitis. The patient is awaiting a cholecystostomy. What signs and symptoms are associated with this condition? Select all that apply:*
    •  A. Right lower quadrant pain with rebound tenderness
    •  B. Negative Murphy’s Sign
    •  C. Epigastric pain that radiates to the right scapula
    •  D. Pain and fullness that increases after a greasy or spicy meal
    •  E. Fever
    •  F. Tachycardia
    •  G. Nausea

The answers are C, D, E, F, and G. Option A and B are not associated with cholecystitis, but a POSITIVE Murphy’s Sign is.

500

The nurse is receiving a pediatric patient in shock who was just involved in an accident and has lost a large amount of blood. The patient should be assessed for which type of shock first?


Septic shock


Distributive shock


Cardiogenic shock


Hypovolemic shock

Hypovolemic shock


This patient should be first assessed for hypovolemic shock because this is characterized by an overall decrease in circulating blood or fluid volume.

500
  • 19. During the emergent phase of burn management, you would expect the following lab values:*
    •  A. Low sodium, low potassium, high glucose, low hematocrit
    •  B. High sodium, low potassium, low glucose, high hematocrit
    •  C. High sodium, high potassium, high glucose, low hematocrit
    •  D. Low sodium, high potassium, high glucose, high hematocrit

The answer is D. Think about the increase in the capillary permeability that happens with severe burns, which causes the plasma to leave the intravascular system and enter the interstitial tissue: Low sodium..why: sodium leaves with the plasma to the interstitial tissue and drops the levels in the blood; High potassium...why? damaged cells lysis and leak potassium which increases the leave in the blood; high glucose...why? stress response leads the liver to release glycogen and this increases levels; high hematocrit...why? when the plasma leaves the intravascular system (the fluid) it causes the blood to become more concentrated so hematocrit increases (this will decrease when the patient's fluid is replaced).

500

4. The nurse is caring for a child with a skin disorder. The child presented with papules that progressed to

vesicles with a honey-colored exudate. What treatment would the nurse expect to be ordered to treat 

this disorder? Select all that apply.

a. Topical mupirocin ointment

b. Warm compresses after washing with soap and water several times a day

c. Cool compresses to assist in removing crusts on vesicles

d. Oral cephalexin

e. Regular hygiene measures


Rationale: The condition described is impetigo. Options A, C, & D are treatments used. Warm compresses

would cause increased blood flow to the area resulting in increased itching and discomfort. Since 

impetigo is contagious, regular hygiene measures would not be adequate. Contact precautions should be

used

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