Eye can't ear you!
Renal Review
Calm your hormones!
The heart of the matter
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100

A client with newly diagnosed glaucoma is being prescribed betaxolol (Betoptic).  The client asks what the purpose of the medication is.  What is the best description of the medication?
A. “Betoptic decreases IOP by reducing aqueous humor production”

B. “Betoptic improves optic nerve resistance”

C. “Betoptic relieves pain in the eye”

D. “Betoptic breaks down aqueous humor to lower IOP”

A. “Betoptic decreases IOP by reducing aqueous humor production”

100

Patients with CKD have an increased incidence of cardiovascular disease related to (select all that apply)

A. hypertension.
B. vascular calcifications.
C. a genetic predisposition.
D. hyperinsulinemia causing dyslipidemia.
E. increased high-density lipoproteins levels.

A. hypertension.
B. vascular calcifications.

D. hyperinsulinemia causing dyslipidemia.

100

A patient with Cushing’s syndrome will be undergoing an adrenalectomy. Which of the following will be included in the patient’s discharge teaching after the procedure?

A. Glucocorticoid replacement therapy

B. Avoiding avocadoes and pears

C. Declomycin therapy

D. Signs and symptoms of Grave’s Disease

A patient with Cushing’s syndrome will be undergoing an adrenalectomy. Which of the following will be included in the patient’s discharge teaching after the procedure?*

A. Glucocorticoid replacement therapy

B. Avoiding avocadoes and pears

C. Declomycin therapy

D. Signs and symptoms of Grave’s Disease

A. Glucocorticoid replacement therapy

100
  • When a client in in Afib, which medication is appropriate to use?
  • Diltiazem
  • B. Captopril
  • C. Digoxin
  • D. Nitroglycerin
  • Answer: Diltiazem
  • Rationale: Diltiazem is calcium channel blocker treating an irregular, often rapid heart rate.
100

TRUE OR FALSE: An acutely ill patient should be assessed prior to interview to confirm they are stable?

  • True
  • False



True

Rationale: When you think about acute patients, your patient doesn’t “look right” you must assess FIRST to know they are stable!

200

36. A client is receiving post-operative teaching for cataract extraction surgery.  What is an indication of the clients understanding of the teaching?

A. “I will close my eyes when I lift heavy objects”

B. “I will call my primary health care provider if I feel pain in my eye”

C. “I don’t need to protect my eye at night when I sleep”

D. “I will no longer need glasses to see after the procedure”

B. “I will call my primary health care provider if I feel pain in my eye”

200

What are the main strategies used to decrease serum phosphorus in CKD? (Select all that apply)

Reduce dietary phosphorus intake

Give vitamin D

Give phosphate binders

Give a calcimimetic

Dialysis (in chronic dialysis pt)


A, C and E

200
  • A patient is being discharged home for treatment of hypothyroidism. Which medication is most commonly prescribed for this condition?
  • A. Tapazole
  • B. PTU (propylthiouracil)
  • C. Synthroid
  • D. Inderal
  • C. Synthroid
200
  • A patient who has just been admitted with pulmonary edema is scheduled to receive the following medications. Which medication should the nurse question before giving?
  • Furosemide (Lasix) 60 mg.
  • B. Captopril (Captopril) 25 mg
  • C. Digoxin (Lanoxin) 0.125 mg
  • D. Carvedilol (Coreg) 3.125 mg


  • Answer: D
  • Rationale: Although carvedilol is appropriate for the treatment of chronic heart failure, it is not used for patients with acute decompensated heart failure (ADHF) because of the risk of worsening the heart failure. The other medications are appropriate for the patient with ADHF.
200

Which is NOT an example of a chronic illness?

  • Hypertension
  • COPD
  • Bronchitis
  • Diabetes


Rationale: Bronchitis is an example of an acute illness.

Bronchitis is an example of an acute illness.

300

35). What drugs are commonly associated with hearing loss?

A. Salicylates, potassium-sparing diuretics, thiazide diuretics, and antibiotics

B. Salicylates, insulin, thiazide diuretics, and antibiotics

C. Salicylates, loop diuretics, chemotherapy drugs and antibiotics

D. Antibiotics, potassium-sparing diuretics, chemotherapy drugs, and corticosteroids



C- Drugs commonly associated with ototoxicity include salicylates, loop diuretics, chemotherapy drugs, and antibiotics. Potassium-sparing diuretics, thiazide diuretics, insulin, and corticosteroids are not associated with ototoxicity.

300

 Which patient is most likely to develop Acute tubular necrosis (ATN)?

A. a patient with diabetes

B. a patient with hypertensive crisis

C. a patient who tried to overdose on acetaminophen

D. a patient with prolonged hypotension

D. a patient with prolonged hypotension

300
  • You are performing discharge teaching with a patient who is going home on Synthroid. Which statement by the patient causes you to re-educate the patient about this medication?
  • A. “I will take this medication at bedtime with a snack”
  • B. “I will never stop taking this medication abruptly”
  • C. “I f I have palpitations, chest pain, intolerance to heat, or feel restless. I will notify the doctor”
  • D. “ I will not take this medication at the same time I take my Carafate”
  • A. “I will take this medication at bedtime with a snack”
300
  • Which drug require the nurse to monitor the client for signs of hyperkalemia?
  • Furosemide
  • Metolazone
  • Spironolactone
  • Hydrochlorothiazide
  • Spironolactone
300

Examples of primary prevention include:

  • Colonoscopy at age 50
  • Avoidance of tobacco products
  • Intake of a diet low in saturated fat in a patient with high cholesterol
  • Teaching the importance of exercise to a patient with hypertension



  • Avoidance of tobacco products

Rationale: Primary prevention occurs before a patient is diagnosed and before screening.

400

32). Aling Martha, a 73-year-old widow, tells to the nurse during the admission process that she was recently diagnosed with age-related hearing loss. Upon receiving such information, the nurse is correct if he suspects:
A. Ménière's disease
B. Otalgia
C. Otitis media
D. Presbycusis



D- The term presbycusis refers to sensorineural hearing impairment in elderly individuals.

400

What are intrarenal causes of AKI? (select all that apply):

A. anaphylaxis

B. renal stones

C. bladder cancer

D. nephrotoxic drugs

E. acute glomerulonephritis

F. tubular obstruction by myoglobin

D. nephrotoxic drugs

E. acute glomerulonephritis

F. tubular obstruction by myoglobin

400

Which of the following patients are at risk for developing Cushing’s Syndrome?*

A. A patient stop taking his prednisone last week because of the flu.

B. A patient taking glucocorticoids for several weeks.

C. A patient with a tuberculosis infection.

D. A patient who is post-opt from an adrenalectomy.

B. A patient taking glucocorticoids for several weeks.

400
  • What is the antidote for digoxin?
  • Digibind 
  • Vitamin K
  • Atropine
  • Digitoxin
  • The antidote for digoxin that is used within practice is Digibind. When patient is experiencing Digoxin toxicity, they will be given the antidote to reverse the effects.
400

What diagnostic study can be used to diagnose cancer?

  • Biopsy
  • Ultrasound
  • Blood tests
  • Sputum culture



Biopsy’s can be used to determine if a tumor is cancerous and how to treat it. Ultrasounds, blood tests, and sputum cultures are not the most effective.

500

29). Which of the following are causes of conductive hearing loss?

A. Ototoxicity

B. Genetic factors

C. Otitis media with effusion

D. Impacted cerumen

E. Noise trauma

F. Perforation of the TM



C, D,F- Otitis media with effusion, impacted cerumen, and perforation of the TM are causes of conductive hearing loss. Ototoxicity, genetic factor, and noise trauma cause sensorineural hearing loss.

500

The nurse teaches a patient with chronic kidney disease about prevention of complications.  What should the nurse include in the teaching plan?

a. Monitor for proteinuria daily with a urine dipstick.

b. Perform self-catheterization every 4 hours to measure urine.

c. Take calcium-based phosphate binders on an empty stomach.

d. Check weight daily and report a gain of greater than 4 pounds.

d. Check weight daily and report a gain of greater than 4 pounds.

Rationale: Patients with chronic kidney disease are taught to report weight gain greater than 4 pounds (2 kg). Proteinuria is an expected finding and is not monitored. Calcium-based phosphate binders should be taken with meals because most phosphate is absorbed within 1 hour after eating. Self-catheterization is not indicated and may lead to infection.

500

Which of the following is not a typical sign and symptom of Cushing’s Syndrome?

A. Hyperpigmentation of the skin

B. Thin skin

C. Purplish striae

D. Moon Face

A. Hyperpigmentation of the skin

500
  • Which of the following EKG changes are abnormal findings that may indicate ischemia or injury to the cardiac muscle found on a 12- lead EKG? SELECT ALL THAT APPLY
  • A. Lengthening p-waves
  • B. ST-segment elevation
  • C. T-wave inversion
  • D. Tall t-waves
  • E. QT interval narrowing
  • F. ST-segment depression

B, C, and F

500

Which of the following are risk factors of cancer?

A. Smoking

B. Age

C. Genetics

D. Alcohol consumption

E. Exercise



A, B, C, and D

Risk factors for cancer include hormones, alcohol, immunosuppression, genetics, age, smoking, sun exposure, diet, lifestyle, morbidity, environment, exposure to radiation, UV light.  Exercise can help prevent cancer formation.

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