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MISC:
100
This type of pain has generally absent physiologic signs; the patient may appear "Well"
What is chronic pain
100
Rapid emptying that causes a rapid release of "metabolic peptides" which can happen after bariatric surgery is known as _____.
What is dumping syndrome
100
Name any 2 sources of evidence that can be used for EBP.
What is: -reports of mult. research studies (RCTs being strongest evidence) -individual randomized clinical trials -non-experimental research -Clinical reports -Clinical expertise -Patient values
100
Name 2 drug types approved for treatment of HIV (there are 6)
1. Nonnucleoside Reverse Transcriptase Inhibitors (Nevirapine) 2. Nucleoside Reverse Transcriptase Inhibitors (Zidovudine=AZT) 3. Protease Inhibitor 4. Fusion Inhibitor 5. CCR5 Coreceptor Antagonist Inhibitor 6. Integrase Inhibitor
100
This electrolyte imbalance is associated with premature ventricular contraction and ventricular tachycardia
What is hypokalemia
200
Your 43 year old patient is taking acetaminophen. You know the max amount of the medication that can be given is ____ in ___ hours.
What is 4000 mg (4g) in 24 hours.
200
The correct positioning for a patient after a radical neck dissection
What is Fowler's position
200
This is the surgical procedure used for GERD and Hiatal hernia.
What is Nissen Fundoplication
200
Name two drugs commonly used to treat TB
What is rifampin and isoniazid
200
Name the category of the drug Aminophylline
What is bronchodilator
300
This type of immunity involves antibodies transferred to a person. BONUS 100 POINTS if the team can list one of the ways this happens
What is passive immunity. Immune globulin or placental transfer
300
Name at least two laboratory indications of a UTI.
What is elevated WBC (pyuria), bacterial, nitrites, leukocyte esterase
300
Name at least 3 general symptoms of anemia:
Pallor (or jaundice if hemolytic), cool to the touch (or c/o feeling cold/chilled), tachycardia, orthostatic hypotension, DOE (dyspnea on exertion), decreased O2 saturation, fatigue, HA, weak/decreased energy Additional sx from book: dizziness, palpitations, peripheral edema, GI sx including nausea, vomiting (specifically appearance of any emesis [e.g., looks like “coffee grounds”]), melena [dark stools], diarrhea, anorexia, and glossitis (inflammation of the tongue)), nails may be brittle, ridged, and concave.
300
This is released in Type 1 anaphylaxis reactions (inflammatory mediator)
What is histamine
300
Identify 4 risk factors associated with ovarian cancer.
What is >40 years old, family hx of breast or ovarian cancers, no pregnancies or late first pregnancy, infertility, early menarche, late menopause (many associated with estrogen exposure)
400
______ sign is a muscle twitch that occurs when the cheek bone is tapped and is associated with the electrolyte imbalance _______. (you must get both answers correct to receive the points)
What is Chvostek's sign & Hypocalcemia.
400
The amount of time to wait before doing invasive procedures on someone who just underwent dialysis. Bonus 50 pts: Why?
What is 4-6 hours (d/t heparin)
400
Insulin that is given to correct hyperglycemia.
What is corrective dose ("sliding scale")
400
Name at least two medications that are used for the immediate treatment of anaphylaxis (there are 5)
What is -Oxygen -EPI 0.3mg IV/SQ/IM -Diphenhydramine 25-100mg IV/IM/PO corticosteroid -Albuterol neb -Possibly theophylline IV infusion
400
Name 2 opportunistic infections associated with HIV and at least 1 sign/symptom associated with each infection
Opportunistic infections: -PCP Pneumonia (presumed fungal lung infection causing dyspnea, tachycardia, dry cough, fatigue, weight loss, fever) -Candidiasis (fungal or yeast infection involving the tongue, esophagus, GI tract, or vagina causing rash (creamy-white patches in the oral cavity), itching (vagina), or oral lesions (painful swallowing and retrosternal pain)) -Herpes simplex virus (viral infection causing painful, small, vesicles (blisters) that disrupt skin integrity, may be oral, genital, or ophthalmic) -Cytomegalovirus (CMV) (incurable viral infection, many people show no sx. Sx include: shortness of breath, dyspnea (labored breathing), cough, chest pain, and fever) -Toxoplasmosis (parasitic infection causing slowed mentation or fever)
500
Determine the acid/base imbalance based on these labs: pH= 7.48 PaCO2= 44 mmHg HCO3= 26 mEq/L AND Explain the compensatory mechanism related to the determined imbalance. (you must get both answers correct to receive the points)
What is metabolic alkalosis AND The compensatory mechanisms would be a decreased respiratory rate to conserve acid (CO2)
500
A diet low in ____ and high in ____ would be most appropriate for a patient with COPD.
COPD diet recommendations: foods low in carbohydrates (broken down in CO2, water and glucose when metabolized so hypercapnia may result) and high in protein or calories (because of increased metabolic demands)
500
Your patients insulin orders indicate 2 units of Aspart should be administered per carb choice. For lunch he plans on eating all of the following: 1 cup of cooked pasta, a small banana, 1 cup of skim milk, 1 large potato, and 1 cup of cranberry juice cocktail How much insulin should this patient receive? AND How many carbs choices are recommended for this patient at each meal? (you must answer both questions correctly to receive the points)
What is 16 units 1 cup of cooked pasta (3 carbs), a small banana (1 carb), 1 cup of skim milk (1 carb), 1 large potato (1 carb), 1 cup of cranberry juice cocktail (2 carbs)= 8 carbs 4-5 carb choices per meal are recommended for men (FYI 3-4 carb choices per meal are recommended for women)
500
Differentiate between latent TB and active TB. You must include at least 1 commonality and 2 differentiating factors of each
Latent TB: -No sx (doesn't feel sick) -Cannot spread TB to others -Normal CXR/Sputum culture -Tx recommended to prevent active TB Both: -Skin or blood tests are positive Active TB: -Symptomatic (feels sick) -May spread TB to others -CXR and/or sputum culture is usually abnormal -Tx is required for cure
500
Benadryl isn’t helpful in managing Type IV delayed hypersensitivity reactions. Why?
Because the problem is T cells releasing lymphokines, not histamine. (The lymphokines and sensitized t-cells rx with antigens activate macrophages and induce inflammation.)
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