Time is running out
Slo-mo[tion]
Join in the fun
May it please the Court
It wasn't me!
100

This rule tells us that a party may amend its pleading once as a matter of course. 

What is Rule 15(a)(1)?

100

This rule asserts a defense for insufficient service of process.

What is Rule 12(b)(5)?

100

This rule allows the joinder of any claims even without the same transaction or occurrence.

What is Rule 18?

100

This is the statute for supplemental jurisdiction.

What is 28 USC 1367?

100

This is the rule for an illustrative list of defenses that inject new material into an answer.

What is Rule 8(c) affirmative defenses?

200

This rule allows for a narrow circumstance where you can overcome prescription problems by amending if one claim is filed in time and the prescribed claim is transactionally related.

What is Rule 15(c)?

200

This Rule prevents sequential motions. 

What is Rule 12(g)(2)?

200

This rule mandates the joinder of parties when they relief cannot be granted in the party's absence.

What is Rule 19(a)(1)(A)?
200

The is the manner by which plaintiff's dismissal results in a dismissal with prejudice.

What is a second dismissal in federal court by notice?

200

This is a mechanism that allows for a case to be re-litigated after a default judgment where the case is strong on the merits and IPJ is contested. 

What is a direct attack?

300

This is the rule that tells you how many days a defendant has to serve an answer after being served with the summons and complaint.

What is Rule 12(a)(1)(A)(i)?

300

This must be made in writing unless made during a hearing or trial, stated with particularity for the grounds seeking it and with the relief sought under Rule 7(b)(1)(A)-(C).

What is a motion? 

300

This is the mechanism by which 28 USC 1335 can operate if a stakeholder has the same citizenship as a claimant.

What is minimal diversity?

300

This is the body who enters a default judgment for a sum certain under Rule 55(b).

What is the court clerk?

300
These are the six categories of admissions and denials in Rule 8(b).
What are (1) in general, (2) denials - responding to the substance, (3) general and specific denials, (4) denying part of an allegation, (5) lacking knowledge or information, and (6) effect of failing to deny?
400

This is the amount of time a party has to respond after a motion is denied by the Court or postponed until after trial. 

What is 14 days?

400

These are the two ways in which the court may strike a pleading under Rule 12(f) and the reason why they may strike.

What is for an insufficient defense or redundant, immaterial, impertinent, or scandalous matter, and (1) on its own or (2) on a motion made by either party before responding to the pleading, or, if one is not allowed, within 21 days of being served with the pleading?
400

These are the rules under which a claim raised by a plaintiff against a defendant or third party is precluded under 28 USC 1367(b).

What are Rules 14, 19, 20, and 24?

400

These kinds of claims under Rule 14 require independent basis of SMJ.

What are all claims under Rule 14?

400

This is the rule for a defending party to indemnify a third party.

What is Rule 14(a)(1)?

500

This is the number of days a party against whom a default judgment has been sought and which has appeared personally or by a representative has to be served with a written notice of the application for default judgment.

Hint: Rule 55

What is at least 7 days?

500

This is the rule that governs sanctions based on a party being unprepared or lying. 

What is Rule 11?

500

These are the two types of mechanisms that involve claims between a 3rd-party defendant and a 3rd-party plaintiff under Rule 14.

What are up-sloping claims? What are down-sloping claims?

500

These are the factors for judicial discretion declining to exercise supplemental jurisdiction.

What is (1) the claim raises a novel or complex issue of State law, (2) the claim substantially predominates over the claim or claims over which the district court has original jurisdiction, (3) the district court has dismissed all claims over which it has original jurisdiction, or (4) in exceptional circumstances, there are other compelling reasons for declining jurisdiction?

500

This is what the stakeholder must deposit to the Court in Rule 22 Interpleader.

What is nothing?

M
e
n
u