Category 1 – Paper 1 Essentials
How long do candidates have to complete 8021 Paper 1 Essay?
8021 paper 1
A. 1 hour
B. 1 hour 15 minutes
C. 1 hour 30 minutes
D. 2 hours
B. 1 hour 15 minutes
Which of the following BEST describes the core task of Paper 1?
A. Write a short story from a given picture
B. Write one discursive/argumentative essay on a given topic
C. Summarise a passage in 200 words
D. Answer multiple short-answer questions
B. Write one discursive/argumentative essay on a given topic
These are “core requirements” implied by writing a 600–700 word argumentative essay.)
For a 600–700 word essay in 1h15, the MOST sensible number of main body paragraphs is:
A. One very long paragraph
B. Two or three clear body paragraphs plus intro and conclusion
C. Ten very short paragraphs
D. No paragraphs at all
B. Two or three clear body paragraphs plus intro and conclusion
In a “To what extent…” question on natural disasters (Question 6), a strong essay will:
A. Ignore real events and speak generally
B. Use examples from your country (e.g. floods, earthquakes) to judge how prepared it is
C. Only describe disasters in other continents
D. Only define “natural disaster”
B. Use examples from your country (e.g. floods, earthquakes) to judge how prepared it is
A candidate writes 350 words but shows excellent vocabulary. What is the most likely effect on their mark?
A. Language band automatically becomes top level
B. No problem – length is irrelevant
C. Content and development are likely to be limited, which can cap the overall band
D. They get a penalty and the script is not marked
C. Content and development are likely to be limited, which can cap the overall band
Which is the most serious problem for an 8021 Paper 1 essay?
A. Having slightly messy handwriting
B. Using both British and American spelling
C. Writing a well-structured essay that does NOT answer the specific question set
D. Making one or two minor spelling errors
C. Writing a well-structured essay that does NOT
How many questions must you answer in this paper?
8021 paper 1
A. One question
B. Two questions
C. Three questions
D. All ten questions
A. One question
what extent does the government provide effective public services…?”, the phrase “To what extent” tells you to:
A. List only advantages
B. Strongly agree without discussion
C. Consider how far the statement is true and reach a judgement
D. Write a narrative story
C. Consider how far the statement is true and reach a judgement
Which introduction best fits Paper 1 expectations?
A. A list of all your points with no sentence structure
B. A clear opening that shows your position and introduces the main issue
C. A drawing with no writing
D. Starting with your conclusion and then stoppin
B. A clear opening that shows your position and introduces the main issue
When evaluating whether people should be allowed to protest in any way they choose (Question 9), which approach is strongest?
A. Saying “yes” or “no” without reasons
B. Considering both benefits of free protest and potential harms, then deciding a reasoned position
C. Only describing one protest you saw online
D. Listing laws without explaining them
B. Considering both benefits of free protest and potential harms, then deciding a reasoned position
In 8021 Paper 1, what matters MOST for a strong Content/Argument mark?
A. Listing as many points as possible
B. Repeating the question keywords often
C. Developing a clear line of argument that directly answers the question
D. Using very complex sentence structures
C. Developing a clear line of argument that directly answers the question
A candidate chooses the marriage question and turns it into a pure narrative: two people falling in love, wedding day, etc. Why is this a major issue?
A. Narrative is ALWAYS banned
B. It fails to critically examine whether marriage is “necessary in modern society” – the core of the question
C. It is too emotional
D. Examiners dislike stories
B. It fails to critically examine whether marriage is “necessary in modern society” – the core of the question
What is the recommended length of the essay?
A. 400–500 words
B. 500–600 words
C. 600–700 words
D. 700–800 words
C. 600–700 words
The paper advises: “Use examples to support your arguments.” This mainly tests your ability to:
A. Memorise facts
B. Copy from the question
C. Give relevant, developed support for your points
D. Write as briefly as possible
C. Give relevant, developed support for your points
To show good development, each paragraph should:
A. Present a point, explain it, and support it with a relevant example
B. Contain only one unsupported statement
C. Be made only of quotations
D. Only repeat the question in different words
A. Present a point, explain it, and support it with a relevant example
For Question on green spaces in new house-building projects, a good example would be:
A. A science experiment in a lab
B. A housing estate in your city that has parks/playgrounds and the benefits they bring
C. A film review
D. A school exam timetable
B. A housing estate in your city that has parks/playgrounds and the benefits they bring
Which of the following is the BEST description of evaluation in the context of this exam?
A. Giving your personal opinion in one sentence at the end
B. Weighing up different arguments, judging their strength, and reaching a justified conclusion
C. Explaining every term in the question separately
D. Writing in a very formal, academic tone
B. Weighing up different arguments, judging their strength, and reaching a justified conclusion
Which exam habit is most likely to push a student into lower bands even if their English is good?
A. Taking 3–4 minutes to plan
B. Spending time underlining key words
C. Ignoring the command word and writing whatever they like about the topic
D. Leaving 3–5 minutes to check
C. Ignoring the command word and writing whatever they like about the topic
What is the total mark for Paper 1?
A. 20
B. 25
C. 30
D. 40
C. 30
Discuss the view that the news media should never be censored…” What should a good “discuss” answer do?
A. Describe only one side of the issue
B. Present different arguments and weigh them up before concluding
C. Write only personal stories
D. Only define key words
B. Present different arguments and weigh them up before concluding
Which of these strategies best matches high-level Paper 1 performance?
A. Writing quickly without planning
D. Planning your argument, using relevant examples and keeping your answer focused on the exact question
C. Changing question halfway through
B. Using as many difficult words as possible without clarity
D. Planning your argument, using relevant examples and keeping your answer focused on the exact question
Overall, a Band 1 style Paper 1 answer would most likely show:
A. Clear argument, relevant examples, balanced evaluation and a focused answer on the exact question
B. Lots of copied phrases from the paper and no structure
C. Only emotional language with no logic
D. Short bullet points instead of paragraphs
A. Clear argument, relevant examples, balanced evaluation and a focused answer on the exact question
Why do examiners dislike essays that are mostly descriptive (just telling stories or facts)?
A. Description is harder to mark
B. Description does not show analysis, argument, or evaluation
C. Description always contains grammar errors
D. Descriptions are only allowed in Paper 2
B. Description does not show analysis, argument, or evaluation
Why is it good practice to include both local and global examples in Paper 1 essays (when relevant)?
A. It makes the essay longer
B. It looks like you memorised a textbook
C. It demonstrates breadth of knowledge and shows you can apply ideas in more than one context
D. It replaces the need for analysis
C. It demonstrates breadth of knowledge and shows you can apply ideas in more than one context
How are marks distributed across the 10 questions on the paper?
A. The first five questions are worth more
B. Topic questions are worth more than others
C. All questions are worth equal marks
D. The last question is compulsory and worth double
C. All questions are worth equal marks
Questions 4, 7 and 9 use the command word “Evaluate”. What does “evaluate” mainly require?
A. Listing as many points as possible
B. Judging the strengths and weaknesses, then arriving at an overall view
C. Rewriting the question in your own words
D. Giving statistics without explanation
B. Judging the strengths and weaknesses, then arriving at an overall view
Why does the paper explicitly say “Use examples to support your arguments”?
A. To increase your word count only
B. To show handwriting skills
C. Because examples make your points more convincing and show real-world understanding
D. To fill space if you have no idea
C. Because examples make your points more convincing and show real-world understanding
Which combination BEST represents what examiners look for in a high-band (top level) Paper 1 response?
A. Long essay, many ideas, minimal structure
B. Clear argument, strong organisation, relevant examples, and consistent evaluation
C. Perfect grammar but no clear point of view
D. Lots of statistics with no explanation
B. Clear argument, strong organisation, relevant examples, and consistent evaluation
Which is the BEST order for a high-quality body paragraph in a Paper 1 essay?
A. Example → Point → Explanation → Link
B. Point → Explanation → Example → (Mini) evaluation / link to question
C. Explanation → Point → Example → New topic
D. Link → Example → Point → Explanation
B. Point → Explanation → Example → (Mini) evaluation / link to question
For the international aid question, which example is the strongest?
A. “Aid is good because some countries are poor.”
B. “In some cases, donors use aid to gain influence, for example through tied aid or military support.”
C. “Aid is always bad.”
D. “I once saw a video about aid.”
B. “In some cases, donors use aid to gain influence, for example through tied aid or military support.”