GI bleeding
Pancreas
Biliary Tract
Infectious Disease
GI Potpourri
100
A 47-year-old man with known alcoholic cirrhosis complicated by ascites presents to the emergency room with melena and weakness; he has never had GI bleeding before. Upper endoscopy reveals small nonbleeding esophageal varices without stigmata of recent bleeding and a gastric ulcer with pigmented protuberance. Bipolar coagucoagulation is applied with good effect. In addition to PPI therapy, stopping any NSAIDs, and checking for H. pylori, which of the following is most important? A) Esophageal variceal ligation B) Administration of beta blocker by mouth C) Administration of somatostatin (Octreotide) intravenously D) Administration of antibiotics by mouth E) Abdominal Duplex ultrasound
What is D
100
A 42-year-old woman is admitted with one day of severe epigastric abdominal pain, nausea and vomiting. On examination she is afebrile with a heart rate of 126 beats per minute and blood pressure of 86/45 mmHg. Her abdomen is diffusely tender with rebound in the epigastrium and no bowel sounds. Her white cell count is 15,000/mm3 with a left shift and a hematocrit of 47, BUN of 28 mg/dl, serum creatinine of 1 mg/dl with normal liver tests and amylase of 5200 U/L (NL <120 U/L), and lipase of 2800 U/L (NL <80 U/L). A diagnosis of acute pancreatitis is made. All of the following statements about severity assessment in acute pancreatitis are correct EXCEPT: A) Initial and subsequent BUN levels can predict disease severity and mortality. B) The development and persistence of a systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS) identifies patients with increased mortality. C) APACHE-O is useful in severity assessment. D) Marked elevation of amylase and lipase levels are useful in severity assessment. E) Ranson’s scoring system takes 48 hours to complete.
What is D
100
A 34-year-old woman returns to your clinic after a recent visit to her primary care physician. She has been under your care for pan-ulcerative colitis for 6 years, and her last colonoscopy was 1.5 years ago. The colonoscopy was consistent with endoscopic remission. During her primary care visit she had routine laboratory values drawn. Laboratory Values WBC – 4,000 cell/mm3 Hematocrit – 40% Creatinine – 1.0 mg/dL Bilirubin – 1.6 mg/dL Alkaline Phosphatase – 475 IU/L AST – 23 IU/L ALT – 27 IU/L You recommend an MRCP that shows narrowing of intrahepatic ducts with intervening saccular dilations. When should you schedule the patient for a colonoscopy? A) No need for colonoscopy at this time B) Eight years after the diagnosis of ulcerative colitis C) At the present time D) In one year E) Delay colonoscopy and plan ERCP immediately.
What is C
100
A 23-year-old man with a 6 year history of pan-ulcerative colitis presents to the office with 2 weeks of increasing rectal bleeding and diarrhea. The blood is red and mixed with the stool. His disease had previously been in steroid-free symptom remission for 3 years on maintenance dose oral mesalamine. He is hemodynamically stable. In addition to evaluating for progression of disease, what is the most important test to perform? A) Stool testing for Clostridium difficile B) Stool testing for occult blood C) Upper endoscopy D) CT scan E) Stool testing for H. pylori
What is A
100
Which of the following serological or genetic tests is the most sensitive and specific for untreated celiac disease? A) Deaminated gliadin peptide antibody B) Tissue transglutaminase and IgA antibody C) Gliadin IgA antibody D) Finding HLA DQ2 or DQ8 genotypes E) Combination of positive rheumatoid factor with any celiac serological test
What is B
200
Which of the following downregulates acid production from the parietal cell? A) Somatostatin B) Intracellular calcium C) Histamine D) Gastrin E) Acetylcholine
What is A
200
A 65-year-old man is admitted with severe abdominal pain, fever, nausea, and vomiting. On examination he is febrile, with stable vital signs. The upper abdomen is diffusely tender, with rebound and absent bowel sounds. Left flank ecchymosis is present. Serum amylase and lipase are elevated. After aggressive fluid resuscitation, a contrast CT scan on day 2 of illness demonstrates an edematous pancreas with nonenhancement of about 30% of the gland and multiple peri-pancreatic fluid collections. In terms of management, which of the following statements about nutrition is correct? A) Total parenteral nutrition and enteral nutrition result in similar metabolic complications. B) Nutritional support is indicated in patients with mild pancreatitis to reduce complications. C) Total parenteral nutrition is associated with mortality reduction in acute pancreatitis. D) Enteral nutrition is the preferred route for nutritional support in patients with severe acute pancreatitis. E) Pancreatic necrosi
What is D
200
A 72-year-old man presents with 18 hours of RUQ abdominal pain. He has a past medical history of hyperlipidemia and hypertension. He takes atorvastatin and amlodipine. The patient’s family had noted that he was in his usual state of health two days prior but in the last four hours he has become lethargic and confused. In the Emergency room he was found to be tachycardic to 110 beats per minute, blood pressure 90/60 mmHg, tachypneic with 24 breaths per minute and has a temperature of 39o C. Ultrasound of the gallbladder shows his common bile duct to be 1.3 cm in size. Laboratory Values WBC – 17,000 cell/mm3 Hematocrit – 46% Potassium – 4.1 Amylase – 5000 IU/L Bilirubin – 4.6 mg/dL Alkaline Phosphatase – 375 IU/L AST – 304 IU/L ALT – 274 IU/L After the institution of aggressive IV hydration and IV antibiotics what is the next best step in the management of this patient? A) CT Abdomen / Pelvis B) Initiation of Enteral Nutrition and continued above management C) Observation for 24-48 hours then ERCP if not symptomatic improved D) MRCP E) ERCP
What is E
200
You are asked to evaluate a 54-year-old man in the Emergency Room. He just returned from a cruise to the Bahamas and he developed diarrhea during his last night on the ship. He has been having multiple watery bowel movements per day, myalgias and chills. He thinks other people on the ship were also ill. He is afebrile in the Emergency Room with a HR of 110 and a BP of 112/70. His KUB showed a non-specific bowel gas pattern and his labs are unremarkable except for a BUN of 25 mg/dL and a WBC of 2.2 thousand/mm3. Which of the following is true regarding this patient’s most likely pathogen: A)Two vaccines against it are now commercially available B) Alcohol-based hand sanitizers are an effective means of prevention. C) Infected patients remain contagious for up to 3 weeks D) Life-long immunity is acquired after infection E) This pathogen only infects adults
What is C
200
A 35-year-old woman presents with 6 six months of diarrhea and a 20 pound weight loss. She has some post-prandial bloat but no abdominal pain. She has rheumatoid arthritis and takes Methotrexate for that. On examination: height 65 inches, weight 105 lb, BMI 18.3 kg/m2 with normal vital signs. She appears thin with modest depletion of subcutaneous fat and proximal arm and leg musculature. The tongue is reddened, and there was decreased proprioceptive sensation of both feet. The abdomen was mildly distended and tympanic without tenderness. Laboratory findings included low hemoglobin at 9.8 g/dl with decreased mean corpuscular volume (79 uM3), elevated fasting blood glucose at 130 mg/dl, elevated ALT (140 U/L) and AST (90U/L). Stool was hemoccult negative. What are the likely nutritional complications of celiac disease in this patient, and how are they best treated (in addition to the gluten free diet)? A) Iron deficient anemia that is best treated by parenteral iron injections. B) Generalized malnutrition that will require supplemental high protein oral formula as well as appropriate diet. C) Osteoporosis that will require supplemental vitamin D, calcium and consideration of bisphosphonates. D) Generalized dietary fat malabsorption best treated with supplemental medium chain triglyceride. E) Zinc deficiency as cause of her glossitis that will respond to oral zinc supplementation.
What is C
300
A 28-year-old man presents to clinic referred for iron deficiency anemia. He notes intermittent black, tarry stool 2-3 times per week. Recently, he has also noticed some dyspnea on exertion and fatigue, prompting a visit to his primary care physician. He was found to have hemoglobin of 9.6 mg/dL with low iron and ferritin and high TIBC. You perform upper endoscopy with small bowel biopsies and ileocolonoscopy; findings are unremarkable. What is the best description of this patient’s gastrointestinal bleeding? A) Occult obscure GI bleeding B) Overt obscure GI bleeding C) Overt occult GI bleeding D) Outlet GI bleeding E) Microscopic GI bleeding
What is B
300
A 62-year-old man is admitted with acute biliary pancreatitis. He develops systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS) on day 2 of admission and progresses to respiratory and renal dysfunction. A CT scan with intravenous contrast on day 3 demonstrates >50% pancreatic pancreatic necrosis with multiple fluid collections around the pancreas. The patient is admitted to the ICU and requires intubation with mechanical ventilation. By day 7 of admission his clinical status has improved, he is extubated, and he is tolerating nasojejunal feeding. On day 10, he develops a fever and hypotension. Examination and laboratory investigation demonstrate a new leukocytosis, worsening serum creatinine, normal liver tests, and worsening abdominal tenderness without guarding or rigidity. What would be the most appropriate next step in the management? A) Urgent ERCP should be performed B) Urgent pancreatic necrosectomy is indicated to reduce mortality. C) Anti-fungal medications should be started. D) A CT-guided fine-needle aspiration of the pancreas is indicated. E) MRCP should be performed.
What is E
300
A 45-year-old woman presents to your office with complaints of intermittent colicky right upper quadrant discomfort that is typically worse after eating “rich meals”. Liver enzymes are normal. You obtain an abdominal ultrasound which shows a 15 mm gallbladder polyp. Which of the following is the most appropriate recommendation? A) Recommend surveillance with interval abdominal ultrasounds B) Recommend CT scan now C) Recommend no further evaluation/ intervention necessary D)Recommend referral to surgeon for cholecystectomy E) Recommend initiate course of therapy with ursodeoxycholic acid (UDCA)
What is D
300
ou are acting as a consultant for a 63-yearold woman who was admitted to the hospital for 2 days of acute diarrhea. She was healthy prior to her admission but has a history of well-controlled type 2 diabetes mellitus and coronary artery disease. She was hemodynamically stable on arrival and her BUN and Cr were both at her baseline. She reported having up to 10 non-bloody bowel movements a day so the admitting team started empiric treatment with ciprofloxacin and metronidazole. A stool sample was collected prior to the initiation of antibiotics and on hospital day 2, the stool culture is positive for Campylobacter jejuni. Which of the following this pathogen is FALSE? A) Symptoms usually start within 1 week of exposure B) Poultry is the most common source of infection C) Post-infectious arthritis has been described associated with this D) This causes less than 1.5 million infections in the US each year E) C. jejuni is more common in the US than C. coli
What is D
300
A 32-year-old woman is 19 weeks pregnant and presents to the emergency room with dysarthria and vision changes. She has had two previous hospitalizations during this pregnancy for hyperemesis gravidarum treated with intravenous fluids and anti-emetics. She has lost 15 pounds since the start of her pregnancy. She is on no medications and has no other significant past medical history. On physical exam, she is noted to have bilateral nystagmus and gait ataxia. She has absent ankle jerks and decreased sensation to temperature and pinprick in her lower extremities. A CBC is checked and is normal with normal MCV, Serum methylmalonic acid levels are normal. What laboratory test will confirm the diagnosis? A) Thiamine levels B) No diagnostic testing needed, empiric therapy with niacin is warranted C) Serum Cobalamin level D) Serum zinc level E) Serum copper level
What is A;This patient is suffering from thiamine deficiency and Wernicke’s encephalopathy. The classic triad of Wernicke’s encephalopathy consists of encephalopathy, oculomotor dysfunction and gait ataxia although peripheral neuropathy is common as is vestibular dysfunction without hearing loss. Wernicke’s encephalopathy is difficult to confirm although serum thiamine levels should be checked. The index of suspicion should be high in patients at risk for thiamine deficiency and IV administration of thiamine is safe and inexpensive as well as effective and should not be delayed as untreated Wernicke’s encephalopathy can progress to coma and death. Niacin deficiency is uncommon in developed countries although can be seen in individuals with alcoholism, anorexia nervosa or malabsorptive diseases. Niacin deficiency causes pellagra that is characterized by a symmetric hyperpigmented rash on sun exposed areas, diarrhea, red tongue, dementia, delusions and disorientation. Niacin deficiency is diagnosed by 24-hour urine tests for niacin metabolites although empiric treatment with niacin supplementation is usually the first course of action in a patient with typical symptoms. B12 deficiency is diagnosed by checking serum cobalamin level and confirming with methylmalonic acid and homocysteine levels. B12 deficiency causes anemia, macrocytic red cells with MCV >100, and neurologic symptoms. Serum methylmalonic acid and homocysteine levels are elevated in B12 deficiency. Although, this patient did have neurologic findings, the serum methylmalonic acid level was normal making the diagnosis of B12 deficiency less likely. Copper deficiency will cause a myelopathy although dietary copper deficiency is rare. Copper deficiency is commonly caused by gastric surgery but can also be seen with excessive zinc ingestion, malabsorption. The diagnosis is confirmed with decreased serum copper or ceruloplasmin level as >90% of circulating copper is bound to ceruloplasmin. Excessive zinc ingestion can cause copper deficiency as zinc and copper are competitively absorbed from the gastrointestinal tract. Zinc levels should be measured if the etiology of the copper deficiency is unknown.
400
A 74-year-old man with a history of coronary artery disease is admitted to the hospital for melena and dizziness. He takes 81 mg of aspirin daily for secondary prophylaxis of cardiovascular disease without concurrent acid suppression. Endoscopy reveals a pre-pyloric ulcer with nonbleeding visible vessel and no evidence of H. pylori; mechanical (hemoclip) therapy is applied. He is started on a proton pump inhibitor (PPI) and recovers well. What would be the best course of action? A) Continue PPI daily and do not restart aspirin B) Continue PPI daily and restart aspirin in 4-6 weeks C) Continue PPI daily and restart aspirin within 1 week D) Stop PPI in 4-6 weeks and restart aspirin on discharge E) Stop PPI and restart aspirin in 4-6 weeks
What is C
400
A 55-year-old man with a history of alcohol abuse and chronic pancreatitis presents with an upper-GI bleed requiring a transfusion of 6 units of packed cells. Upper endoscopy reveals large gastric varices and duodenal erosions. Abdominal CT scanning shows gallstones in the gallbladder and multiple pancreatic calcifications with an enlarged spleen. The splenic vein appears occluded. Which of the following represents the most appropriate treatment? A) Splenectomy B) Transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunt (TIPS) procedure C) Glue injection into the gastric varices (obturation) D) Beta blockade E) Beta blockade combined with nitrate therapy
What is A
400
Which of the following is a risk factor for gallstone disease? A) Male sex B) gradual weight loss C) TPN D) High serum LDL level E) UC
What is C
400
Which of the following statements regarding Vibrio cholera is FALSE? A) Diarrhea is caused by stimulation of cAMP-mediated chloride secretion B) It is effectively treated with singledose doxycycline C) It is an invasive pathogen that is commonly associated with bacteremia D) There is no currently recommended vaccine
What is C
400
All of the following are true statements regarding feeding in acute pancreatitis, except: A) Enteral nutrition is preferred over parenteral nutrition in severe acute pancreatitis B) Patients with severe acute pancreatitis can be fed enterally by the gastric or jejunal route C) The benefit of enteral nutrition in acute pancreatitis is prevention of bacterial translocation and thereby decreasing infection D) mild acute pancreatitis, oral feeding should be initiated as soon as the pain starts improving E) Parenteral nutrition is preferred to rest the pancreas and not stimulate further pancreatitis injury.
What is E
500
A 71-year-old woman with diabetes and peripheral vascular disease presents to the emergency room with 3 episodes of rectal bleeding without hemodynamic compromise. She has no family history of GI malignancy and had a screening colonoscopy 6 months ago with no abnormalities. Which of the following is the most likely endoscopic finding? A) Large, friable mass in the midascending colon B) Left-sided ulcerative colitis to the splenic flexure C) Innumerable polyps throughout the colon D) Extensive pan-diverticulosis with a bleeding diverticulum E) Focal colitis at the splenic flexure
What is E
500
A 65-year-old man presents with painless jaundice. CT scan of the abdomen reveals dilated intra- and extrahepatic bile ducts without a focal mass. ERCP identifies an intrapancreatic bile duct stricture, and brushings are negative for malignancy. A plastic biliary stent is placed. What is the next most appropriate step in management? A) Pancreaticoduodenectomy B) Check serum CA 19-9 C) EUS/ Imaging of the pancreas D) MRI scan E) Octreotide scan
What is C
500
Pigment stones are found in all of the following conditions EXCEPT: A) Pregnancy B) Sickle cell anemia C) Hereditary spherocytosis D) Liver cirrhosis E) Biliary tract infection
What is A;Pigment stones are less common than the traditional cholesterol stones. Black pigment stones result from hemolysis and consist primarily of calcium bilirubinate. Conditions that cause black pigment stones include hemolytic anemias, such as sickle cell anemia and hereditary spherocytosis, and liver cirrhosis. Brown pigment stones are associated with bacterial and helminthic infections of the biliary system and are most commonly seen in Asia. Choice A is incorrect. Pregnancy is a major risk factor for the development of cholesterol gallstones. Sex hormones induce a variety of physiologic changes in the biliary system, which ultimately cause bile to become supersaturated with cholesterol, thereby promoting gallstone formation.
500
A 57-year-old alcoholic man presents to the emergency room with fever, diarrhea and syncope. syncope. He just returned from a week-long cruise along the Gulf coast, and developed a fever earlier in the day that has persisted. He has reported loose stools as well, and although he felt he was adequately keeping up on fluids, he passed out transiently at home before seeking medical attention. On exam, his temperature is 38.9C, blood pressure 72/48 and heart rate 110. In addition to stigmata of chronic liver disease, he has hemorrhagic bullous lesions on his lower extremities. Which of the following was most likely ingested? A) Raw eggs B) Undercooked beef C) Deli meat D) Unpasteurized milk E) Oysters
What is E
500
A 39-year-old woman presents to your clinic asking for dietary advice prior to bariatric surgery. She states that she had anorexia as a teenager treated with cognitive-behavior therapy and has maintained a healthy weight until the past year. She presents today stating that she has gained 40 pounds over the past nine to twelve months. She is wondering if she should undergo bariatric surgery. She states that most days she eats a healthy diet but at least once per week, she will eat a large amount of food, usually in the evenings despite the fact that she doesn’t feel hungry followed by self induced vomiting. She states she does this eating alone, she is usually disgusted with herself when it occurs but she states she “can’t help it.” What is the most likely diagnosis? A) Anorexia B) Night eating syndrome C) Bulimia nervosa D) Binge eating disorder E) Hypothyroidism
What is C
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