Hematologic System
Sickle Cell Disease
Bone Marrow & Cytopenias
Cancer Pathophysiology
Antineoplastic Medications
100

What blood component is responsible for carrying oxygen to tissues and removing carbon dioxide?

: Red blood cells (erythrocytes).

Rationale: Red blood cells transport oxygen via hemoglobin to body tissues and carry carbon dioxide back to the lungs for elimination. RBCs have an average lifespan of about 120 days.

100

Sickle cell disease is inherited through which genetic pattern?

: Autosomal recessive inheritance.

Rationale: A person must inherit two abnormal hemoglobin genes to develop sickle cell disease.

100

Which hormone stimulates the production of red blood cells in the bone marrow?

Erythropoietin.

Rationale: Erythropoietin stimulates erythropoiesis and is often used therapeutically to treat anemia.

100

What term describes the overall process by which normal cells become cancer cells?

Carcinogenesis.

Rationale: Carcinogenesis includes initiation, promotion, and progression leading to malignant transformation.

100

Which class of cancer medications kills rapidly dividing cancer cells throughout the body?

: Chemotherapy.

Rationale: Chemotherapy targets rapidly dividing cells, including cancer cells, but may also affect normal cells.

200

Which blood component is primarily responsible for fighting infection?

White blood cells (leukocytes).

Rationale: White blood cells are part of the immune system and protect the body from pathogens such as bacteria, viruses, and fungi.

200

What abnormal hemoglobin type is responsible for sickle cell disease?

Hemoglobin S.

Rationale: Hemoglobin S causes red blood cells to become rigid and sickle‑shaped, leading to vaso‑occlusion and decreased oxygen delivery.

200

Which medication class stimulates white blood cell production in clients receiving chemotherapy?

Colony‑stimulating factors (G‑CSF).

Rationale: G‑CSF medications stimulate neutrophil production to reduce infection risk in clients with neutropenia.

200

What process allows tumors to develop their own blood supply?

Angiogenesis.

Rationale: Angiogenesis supplies oxygen and nutrients that allow tumors to grow and metastasize.

200

Which chemotherapy drug class works by disrupting DNA replication in cancer cells?

Alkylating agents.

Rationale: Alkylating agents damage DNA strands, preventing replication and leading to cancer cell death.

300

Which blood component is essential for blood clot formation?

Platelets.

Rationale: Platelets help form clots to stop bleeding by aggregating at sites of vascular injury.

300

What life‑threatening pulmonary complication can occur in clients with sickle cell disease?

Acute chest syndrome.

Rationale: Acute chest syndrome occurs when sickled cells block pulmonary vessels, causing hypoxia, chest pain, and respiratory distress.

300

What is the most common manifestation of leukopenia?

Increased susceptibility to infection.

Rationale: Low white blood cell counts weaken immune defense mechanisms, increasing infection risk.

300

What term describes the spread of cancer from the original tumor to distant organs?

Metastasis.

Rationale: Metastasis occurs when cancer cells travel through the blood or lymphatic system to form secondary tumors.

300

What common adverse effect occurs because chemotherapy suppresses bone marrow function?

Myelosuppression.

Rationale: Myelosuppression reduces RBCs, WBCs, and platelets, increasing risks of anemia, infection, and bleeding.

400

Which diagnostic test is commonly used to help detect the presence of a blood clot?

D‑dimer test.

Rationale: The D‑dimer blood test measures fibrin degradation products and is often elevated when a blood clot is present.

400

A client with sickle cell disease presents to the emergency department with fever, chest pain, tachypnea, and decreased oxygen saturation. Which life-threatening complication should the nurse suspect first?


Answer:
Acute chest syndrome.

Rationale:
Acute chest syndrome is a life-threatening complication of sickle cell disease caused by sickling of red blood cells in the pulmonary vasculature. This leads to decreased oxygen exchange, inflammation, and worsening hypoxia. Manifestations include chest pain, fever, cough, tachypnea, and decreasing oxygen saturation. Immediate interventions typically include oxygen therapy, IV fluids, pain management, and possible transfusion because untreated acute chest syndrome can rapidly lead to respiratory failure.

400

A client receiving chemotherapy develops neutropenia. Which nursing priority intervention is most important to reduce the risk of infection?

Answer:
Implement neutropenic precautions and strict infection prevention measures.

Rationale:
Neutropenia occurs when neutrophil levels drop significantly, leaving the body unable to effectively fight infection. Clients with neutropenia are at high risk for sepsis. Nursing interventions include strict hand hygiene, avoiding sick contacts, limiting exposure to crowds, wearing masks when appropriate, monitoring temperature closely, and educating the client to report fever immediately. Even a low-grade fever in neutropenic patients is considered a medical emergency.

400

Cancer that spreads to another organ is referred to as what type of tumor?

Secondary (metastatic) tumor.

Rationale: Secondary tumors originate from the primary cancer but establish new colonies in distant tissues.

400

Why are antineoplastic medications considered high‑alert medications?

They have significant toxicity and can cause severe adverse effects.

Rationale: Chemotherapy agents require careful dosing, monitoring, and safety precautions because of their narrow therapeutic range.

500

What condition occurs when platelet levels are abnormally low?

Thrombocytopenia.

Rationale: Thrombocytopenia increases bleeding risk and may result in petechiae, bruising, or severe hemorrhage.

500

Why are clients with sickle cell disease at increased risk for infection?

Functional asplenia.

Rationale: Repeated sickling damages the spleen, reducing its ability to filter bacteria and increasing infection risk.

500

A client with thrombocytopenia has a platelet count of 18,000/mm³. Which assessment finding requires immediate nursing intervention?

Answer:
Active bleeding or signs of internal hemorrhage.

Rationale:
A platelet count below 20,000/mm³ significantly increases the risk of spontaneous bleeding. Signs such as bleeding gums, petechiae, hematuria, melena, or altered neurological status may indicate internal bleeding. The nurse must immediately notify the provider and anticipate interventions such as platelet transfusion. Preventive measures include avoiding IM injections, using soft toothbrushes, and implementing fall precautions.

500

Which biological process allows cancer cells to form their own blood supply, promoting tumor growth and metastasis?

Answer:
Angiogenesis.

Rationale:
Angiogenesis is the process by which tumors stimulate the formation of new blood vessels to supply oxygen and nutrients necessary for rapid tumor growth. Without angiogenesis, tumors cannot grow beyond a small size because they would lack adequate oxygen and nutrient supply. Many cancer therapies attempt to inhibit angiogenesis to slow tumor progression.

500

A client receiving chemotherapy develops neutropenia, anemia, and thrombocytopenia. Which chemotherapy complication is the nurse recognizing?

Myelosuppression.

Rationale:
Myelosuppression occurs when chemotherapy suppresses bone marrow function, reducing the production of red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets. This results in anemia (fatigue and hypoxia), neutropenia (infection risk), and thrombocytopenia (bleeding risk). Myelosuppression is one of the most common and serious adverse effects of chemotherapy and requires close monitoring of complete blood counts and infection prevention strategies.

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