Week 1
Name the 5 cardinal signs of inflammation.
Redness, heat, swelling, pain, loss of function
This protein transports polypeptides degraded by the proteasome to the ER, where it can be loaded onto MHC-I molecules for antigen presentation.
TAP protein (Transporter associated with antigen processing)
Tocilizumab can be used to treat this complication of CAR-T therapy, which presents with fever, hypotension, tachycardia, tachypnea, and rash.
Cytokine Release Syndrome (CRS)
These proteins are responsible for cutting the DNA segments during VDJ recombination, and mutations for these proteins leads to SCID (severe combined immunodeficiency).
RAG1/2
The second, “delayed” phase of an allergic reaction is primarily mediated by this cell type.
Eosinophils
Give the MOA of guselkumab.
IL-23 inhibitor
One of the risks associated with this category of vaccines is breakthrough infections, especially in immunocompromised individuals.
live/attenuated vaccine
In VDJ recombination, the heavy chain first undergoes ______ recombination, followed by _______ recombination, and the light chain undergoes ________ recombination.
Heavy chain: DJ, VDJ
Light chain: VJ
Peyer’s Patches are an example of this type of region in mucosal immunity, where naïve lymphocytes are exposed to antigens and differentiate into effector cells.
Inducer region (other region = effector region)
This immunodeficiency, characterized by low IgG, IgM, and IgA, is the only humoral immunity disorder that typically presents in adulthood.
CVID; Common Variable Immunodeficiency
Name each component of the ABCDE’s of what to look for in skin disorders.
Ustekinumab is an effective drug to treat psoriasis because it targets the p40 subunit on these two cytokines, both of which are involved in the pathogenesis of psoriasis.
Explain and justify the difference in cellular location of TLRs that recognize bacteria vs. viruses.
TLRs recognizing bacteria (extracellular pathogens) are located on the cell surface, whereas TLRs recognizing viruses (intracellular pathogens) are located in endosomes, where it can recognize PAMPs taken up by phagosomes that then fuse with endosomes.
This enzyme, expressed by thymic epithelial cells, induces the expression of self-antigens expressed in peripheral organs and presents them to T cells for negative selection.
AIRE
Name the two mechanisms by which NK cells mediates killing.
1. release of perforin/granzymes
2. expression of FasL
This drug, a calcineurin inhibitor, binds to FKBP and is used as a long-term immunosuppressant in organ transplantation.
Tracrolimus
This JAK1/3 inhibitor can be used in both RA and psoriatic arthritis.
Tofacitinib
Brodalumab is an inhibitor of IL-17R, while other two are antagonists for IL-17A.
Name 3 TLRs that recognize extracellular pathogens and 3 TLRs that recognize intracellular pathogens.
Extracellular: TLR-2, TLR-4, TLR-5
Intracellular: TLR-3, TLR-8, TLR-9
Name the transcription factors corresponding with each of the following CD4+ T cells: Th1, Th2, Th17, and Treg.
Th1 - T-bet
Th2 - GATA3
Th17 - RORgt
Treg - FOXP3
Deficiency in LFA-1 or Mac-1 leads to this disease, characterized by poor wound healing with absence of pus.
LAD (leukocyte adhesion deficiency)
This enzyme is implicated in the development of CGD (Chronic Granulomatous Disease).
NADPH oxidase (encoded by NOX2 gene)
This drug is a monoclonal antibody against IL-1B and can be used in the treatment of gout.
Canakinumab
Daily Double! This drug (give both the name of the drug as well as its class) inhibits the breakdown of cAMP in T cells.
Apremilast, PDE4 inhibitor
Daily Double question: explain the downstream effects that cAMP has on cytokine production, and name two transcription factors involved and their roles.