Oral Melanoma
Foal Septicemia
Swainsonine Toxicity
Valley Fever
Hypocalcemia
100

This is the common signalment for the development of oral melanomas.

What is middle-aged/older, Dachshund, chow chow, greyhound

100

Name two common risk factors for the development of septicemia in foals.

What are premature birth and failure of passive transfer (FPT)?

100

Swainsonine toxicity is caused by ingestion of these two genera of plants, commonly found in arid regions of the Western United States.

What are Astragalus and Oxytropis?

100

This type of inflammation characterizes the immune response elicited by Coccidioides spp. in feline valley fever.

What is pyogranulomatous inflammation?

100

Hypocalcemia is most commonly observed in this specific subset of dairy cows.

What are multiparous cows in the early postpartum period?

200

The most common sites of metastasis for oral melanomas in dogs include these two regions.

What are the lymph nodes and lungs?

200

Poor sanitation contributes to septicemia in foals by increasing the likelihood of infection through these two common entry points.

What are the umbilicus and gastrointestinal tract?

200

This neurologic sign, described as a rhythmic, small-amplitude movement, is commonly seen in livestock affected by Swainsonine toxicity.

What is a fine head tremor?

200

These structures, formed by Coccidioides spp. in host tissues, release endospores that disseminate the infection.

What are spherules?

200

Hypocalcemia leads to immune suppression by reducing signaling in these cells, increasing the risk of infections.

What are immune cells?


300

For stage 3 oral melanoma, this is the typical mean survival time with multimodal treatment.

What is 5-7 months?

300

This clinical condition in foals, marked by fever, tachycardia, and leukocytosis, results from a massive cytokine release secondary to bacterial infection.

What is SIRS?

300

These two reproductive outcomes are often seen in livestock exposed to Swainsonine.

What are abortion and congenital defects?

300

This immune response is critical for resolving Feline Valley Fever, as innate immunity alone cannot control the infection.

What is cell-mediated adaptive immunity?

300

This concurrent metabolic disorder may mimic hypocalcemia symptoms and complicate diagnosis.

What is hypomagnesemia?

400

These are ddx for oral melanoma.

What are...

  • SCC

  • Fibrosarcoma 

  • Lymphoma 

  • Odontogenic tumors 

  • Gingival hyperplasia 

  • Granulomatous lesions 

400

In advanced stages, foal septicemia can progress to this type of shock.

What is distributive shock? characterized by pooling of blood in peripheral tissues 

400

This environmental factor often increases the risk of Swainsonine toxicity in livestock.

What is scarcity of alternative forage?

400

These three laboratory findings—frequently observed in feline valley fever cases—include changes in white blood cells and protein levels.

What are neutrophilia, monocytosis, and hyperglobulinemia?

400

This dietary strategy, involving manipulation of dietary cation-anion balance, reduces the risk of periparturient hypocalcemia.

What is feeding an acidogenic (DCAD) diet?

500

Oral melanomas evade immune surveillance by upregulating this molecule, which suppresses T-cell activity.

What is PD-L1?

500

This is the definitive diagnostic test for confirming foal septicemia.

What is a positive blood culture?

500

BThe accumulation of incompletely processed oligosaccharides, caused by the inhibition of lysosomal alpha mannosidase, leads to this histological finding.

What is vacuolization and cellular swelling?

500

NThese ocular signs, often seen in feline valley fever, include inflammation of the anterior segment and the retina.

What are anterior uveitis and granulomatous chorioretinitis?

500

While subclinical hypocalcemia lacks overt signs, it increases the risk of these common periparturient disorders in dairy cows.

What are retained fetal placenta, ketosis, and mastitis?

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