Breast
What is the most appropriate CPT code used for fat grafting?
20926; includes harvest of the fat graft material by any method, closure of the donor site, processing of fat graft material, injection of fat graft into recipient site, and 90 days of routine post op care
What are the 3 zones of injury occurring in a nasal fracture?
upper vault (nasal bones, ethmoid, vomer, cephalic septal border)
Middle vault (upper lateral cartilages, septum, maxilla)
Lower vault (alar cartilages, inferior septum)
How is ear prominence corrected from loss of the antihelical fold?
Abrading or scoring the antihelix and placing Mustarde sutures between the conchal and scaphoid eminence
What is the procedure required for a patient who exhibits a Jones I test without dye and Jones II test with dye in the tear sac?
Are the risks of hematoma, hypertrophic scarring, and skin slough higher in the setting of secondary rhytidectomy?
Typically not.
Mastectomy resulting in decreased bulk in the inferior and lateral portions of the right pectoral muscles is caused by denervation of what nerve?
Medial pectoral (C8-T1) supplies lower and lateral sternal portion of pec major and pec minor
What is the limit at which airway resistance increases in the internal nasal valve?
<10-12 degrees.
Ideal angle 15 degrees
True/False: Microtia and inner ear abnormalities may be closely related
False
How is a Jones Test I performed?
Instill 2% fluorescein dye into the conjunctival fornices; recovery of dye indicates a normal lacrimal system (or positive result); negative result necessitates a Jones II test
What adverse effect is lessened by endoscopic browlifting as opposed to conventional coronal browlifting?
Scalp sensation
What does the lateral pectoral nerve supply?
the medial portion of the pectoralis muscle (C5-6)
What anatomically defines the internal nasal valve area?
1. caudal margin of the ULC
2. Septum
3. Nasal floor
4. anterior edge of the inferior turbinate
What is orbital auricular vertebral syndrome otherwise known as?
Goldenhar syndrome: associated with microtia, cervical spine abnormalities, mandibular hypoplasia, preauricular pits/sinuses, hemifacial microsomia, epibulbar dermoids)
How is a Jones II test performed?
Dilation of the puncta is performed first; fluid passing into the nose indicates that obstruction of the nasolacrimal duct is cleared.
In a patient with micrognathia who has both bony deficiencies in the AP and vertical dimensions, what is the most appropriate treatment?
osseous sliding genioplasty
How does one assess the status of the pectoralis muscle in postmastectomy reconstruction (clinic setting)?
place hands on hips and contract chest muscles
Secondary healing of what part of the nose is least likely to provide an acceptable cosmetic result?
Nasal tip
What develops from the first 3 hillocks of the ear during development?
1. tragus
2. helical root
3. superior helix
A negative Jones I and a positive Jones II test indicate what?
blockage of the nasolacrimal duct system below the puncta
How well does chin implantation correct vertical deficiency of the chin?
Only corrects anteroposterior dimension
Decreases longevity of the implant and leads to early rupture
What techniques have important roles in providing tip projection in addition to tip grafting?
Suturing of the medial crura, placing a strut graft between the medial crura
What develops from the second 3 hillocks of the ear?
second branchial arch
1. antitragus
2. antihelix
3. inferior helix and lobule
What procedure will address lower eyelid skin laxity with 2mm of scleral show bilaterally?
Lower lid blepharoplasty with lateral cathopexy
Transverse rhytids along the root of the nose are from which muscle group?
Procerus (originates from the upper lateral cartilage insterting into skin/glabella)