INBDE Review

Prosthodontics

100

Which class of cement is best for a crown preparation that lacks mechanical retention?

A. Zinc phosphate cement

B. Zinc polycarboxylate cement

C. Zinc oxide eugenol

D. Resin cement

D. Resin cement

200

What is the Kennedy classification of the following prosthesis?

A. Kennedy Class IV

B. Kennedy Class II

C. Kennedy Class I

D. Kennedy Class III

B. Kennedy Class II

300

Each of the following is true about the posterior palatal seal EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?

A. Thickness of the posterior palatal seal should be greater than 2 mm

B. The posterior palatal seal varies based on patient anatomy

C. The posterior palatal seal is made along the vibrating line

D. The posterior palatal seal is made to compensate for polymerization shrinkage during denture processing

A. Thickness of the posterior palatal seal should be greater than 2 mm

400

In what direction does the contralateral condyle move in a lateral protrusive movement?

A. Medially

B. Downward and medially

C. Forward, downward, and laterally

D. Forward, downward, and medially

D. Forward, downward, and medially

500

What is the purpose of an indirect retainer in a removable partial denture?

A. To provide support to the denture

B. To prevent the distal extension base from lifting

C. To brace the denture against oblique forces of mastication

D. To strengthen the denture base

B. To prevent the distal extension base from lifting

Oral Radiology

100

What radiographic finding is indicated by the letter “A”?

A. Ramus ghost image

B. Spine ghost image

C. Hard palate ghost image

D. Soft palate ghost image

A. Ramus ghost image

200

When is it safe to obtain dental radiographs during pregnancy?

A. Any time during pregnancy

B. During the 1st trimester

C. During the 2nd trimester

D. During the 3rd trimester

A. Any time during pregnancy

300

What percentage of demineralization needs to occur before caries is visible radiographically?

A. 0-20%

B. 20-30%

C. 30-50%

D. 50-60%

C. 30-50%

400

Which comprises of a cone-beam computed tomography (CBCT) image?

A. Pixels

B. Voxels

C. Cubes

D. Spheres

B. Voxels

500

Adjustments to the horizontal angulation of the positioning indicator device (PID) can cause what on the radiographic image?

A. Cone cut

B. Closed or open contacts

C. Elongation or foreshortening

D. Teeth appear widened and out of focus

B. Closed or open contacts

Pharmacology Principles

100

Each of the following drugs are most likely to cause gingival hyperplasia EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?

A. Phenytoin (Phenytek®)

B. Cyclosporine (Neoral®)

C. Nifedipine (Procardia XL®)

D. Bisoprolol (Concor®)

D. Bisoprolol (Concor®)

200

Which is the mechanism of action of methamphetamine?

A. Stimulates release and blocks reuptake of neurotransmitters in the peripheral nervous system

B. Blocks release and accelerates reuptake of neurotransmitters in the peripheral nervous system

C. Stimulates release and blocks reuptake of neurotransmitters in the central nervous system

D. Blocks release and accelerates reuptake of neurotransmitters in the central nervous system

C. Stimulates release and blocks reuptake of neurotransmitters in the central nervous system

300

Each of the following medications has anti-inflammatory properties EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?

A. Montelukast (Singulair®)

B. Ibuprofen (Advil®)

C. Aspirin (Disprin®)

D. Celecoxib (Celebrex®)

E. Perindopril (Aceon®)

E. Perindopril (Aceon®)

400

What is the mechanism of action of Clindamycin?

A. Inhibit bacterial cell wall synthesis

B. Inhibit bacterial mRNA synthesis

C. Inhibit bacterial protein synthesis

D. Inhibit bacterial folic acid synthesis

C. Inhibit bacterial protein synthesis

500

Which interaction is observed between high-risk antibiotics and warfarin?

A. Enhance warfarin effect through promotion of intestinal flora that synthesize vitamin K

B. Diminish warfarin effect through disruption of intestinal flora that synthesize vitamin K

C. Diminish warfarin effect by promotion of intestinal flora that synthesize vitamin K

D. Enhance warfarin effect through disruption of intestinal flora that synthesize vitamin K

D. Enhance warfarin effect through disruption of intestinal flora that synthesize vitamin K

Patient Management

100

A visually impaired older adult patient visits a dental office for getting a submerged root piece removed. What is a good dental office strategy to help such patients?

A. Opening all windows to allow sunlight to bathe the clinic

B. Using the same color on door handles and stair markers

C. Using large-print demonstrations and written materials

D. Using prescription bottles without any print

C. Using large-print demonstrations and written materials

200

Each of the following is required when obtaining informed consent for protective stabilization EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?

A. Information pamphlets

B. In-depth discussion of procedure

C. Alternative treatment option discussion

D. Patient’s name

A. Information pamphlets

300

What is the maximum dosage of epinephrine to an ASA I patient for dental local anesthesia?

A. 0.04 mg

B. 0.02 mg

C. 0.2 mg

D. 0.4 mg

C. 0.2 mg

400

At least how many chest compressions should be performed per minute during CPR?

A. 60

B. 80

C. 100

D. 120

C. 100

500

What is a recommended method of disposing of amalgam waste?

A. Put used amalgam capsules in a biohazard container

B. Put contact amalgam in a biohazard container

C. Recycle used amalgam capsules

D. Rinse instruments, that contacted or held amalgam, in the sink

C. Recycle used amalgam capsules

Head & Neck Anatomy

100

During opening, the condyle of the TMJ moves forward along which of the following structures?

A. Articular eminence of the temporal bone

B. Articular eminence of the frontal bone

C. Zygomatic arch

D. Ramus of the mandible

A. Articular eminence of the temporal bone

200

Which nerve is responsible for taste of the posterior one-third of the tongue?

A. Chorda tympani

B. Glossopharyngeal nerve

C. Lingual nerve

D. Hypoglossal nerve

B. Glossopharyngeal nerve

300

Where is the insertion point of the masseter muscle?

A. Apex and medial surface of coronoid process

B. TMJ and condyloid process

C. Medial surface of the ramus and angle of the mandible

D. Lateral surface of the ramus and angle of the mandible

D. Lateral surface of the ramus and angle of the mandible

400

Each of the following structures primarily undergoes endochondral ossification EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?

A. Ethmoid

B. Sphenoid

C. Clavicle

D. Hyoid

C. Clavicle

500

Where do the preganglionic parasympathetic fibers of the nerve chorda tympani synapse with postganglionic parasympathetic neurons?

A. Submandibular ganglion

B. Petrotympanic fissure

C. Ciliary ganglion

D. Pterygopalatine ganglion

A. Submandibular ganglion