MICROBES UNDERCOVER
WHO AM I? PATHOGEN EDITION
CATCH ME IF YOU CAN
PATIENT ZERO
DIAGNOSE THIS DISASTER
100

A microorganism capable of producing disease is called a ________.

Pathogen

100

Name ONE disease caused by a prion.

Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease (CJD), fatal insomnia, OR Kuru

100

Tuberculosis, bacterial pneumonia, the common cold and influenza are examples of infections that may be transmitted by ________.

Inhalation

100

The stage in which a pathogen is replicating but the host has no recognizable symptoms is the ________ period.

Incubation period

100

Which organism is a Gram-positive coccus commonly spread by direct contact and can cause skin infections, pneumonia, heart valve infections and bone infections?

A. E. coli
B. Staphylococcus aureus
C. C. difficile
D. Salmonella

B. Staphylococcus aureus

200

What is virulence?

The ability of a microorganism to cause disease.

200

Bacteria that are spherical are called ________, while elongated bacteria are called ________.

Cocci; bacilli

200

A patient develops an infection after spores enter a contaminated puncture wound. Which mode of transmission occurred?

A. Ingestion
B. Direct contact
C. Penetration
D. Inhalation

C. Penetration

200

Which stage of infectious disease is associated with initial vague symptoms such as fatigue, fever or feeling unwell?

A. Incubation
B. Prodromal
C. Acute
D. Resolution

B. Prodromal

200

A patient recently received antibiotics and now develops watery diarrhea and abdominal cramping. The suspected organism is ________.

Clostridium difficile

300

A patient develops an infection while receiving treatment in the hospital. This infection would be described as:

A. Iatrogenic
B. Nosocomial
C. Opportunistic
D. Fulminant

B. Nosocomial

Nosocomial means hospital-acquired or health-care associated. Iatrogenic refers to illness caused by a medical procedure or treatment.

300

Which pathogen contains no DNA or RNA?

A. Virus
B. Bacterium
C. Prion
D. Fungus

C. Prion

Prions are infectious protein particles that contain no DNA or RNA and cause protein misfolding.

300

Give TWO examples of diseases transmitted through ingestion.

  • Food poisoning
  • Hepatitis A
  • Cholera
  • Dysentery
300

Put the stages of infectious disease in the correct order:

Acute → Infection → Resolution → Prodromal → Incubation → Convalescent

Infection → Incubation → Prodromal → Acute → Convalescent → Resolution

300

A patient presents after a contaminated wound with:

  • Hypertonia
  • Trismus ("lockjaw")
  • Dysphagia
  • No fever

The bacterial exotoxin blocks the release of inhibitory neurotransmitters, resulting in unopposed muscle stimulation.

Identify the organism.


Clostridium tetani (tetanus)

The organism is a Gram-positive anaerobic spore-forming bacillus, and the lecture highlights the spatula test as a distinctive diagnostic feature.

400

What is the difference between incidence and prevalence?

Incidence = number of new cases occurring in a defined population over a defined period of time.

Prevalence = number of active cases at a given time.


400

Give ONE major difference between viruses and bacteria regarding replication.


Bacteria can replicate on their own, whereas viruses are obligate intracellular pathogens and cannot replicate outside of a living cell.

400

What is vertical transmission, and give ONE example from the lecture.

Transmission from mother to baby, including across the placenta or during birth.

Examples include HIV or chickenpox.

400

Name THREE systemic manifestations that are commonly expected with an infectious disease.


  • ncreased HR
  • Fever/increased temperature
  • Increased WBC count
  • Hypotension
  • Fatigue
  • Lethargy
400

A patient presents with:

  • Bloody diarrhea
  • Abdominal cramps
  • Usually no fever
  • Possible hemolytic-uremic syndrome

Stool culture identifies E. coli O157:H7.

Should this patient routinely receive antibiotics?

NO!!!!!!!!!

Treatment is supportive care; antibiotics are NOT recommended

500

A newly emerging infection has an R₀ of 2.5.

What does this mean, and what would you predict about the infection's ability to spread?

One infected person causes an average of 2.5 new infections in a completely susceptible population. Because R₀ > 1, the disease can spread and may cause an outbreak or epidemic.

500

This microorganism:

  • Requires living cells for growth
  • Is still considered a bacterium
  • Can be transmitted by an arthropod vector
  • May cause an eschar, sudden fever, severe headache and characteristic rash

What microorganism is being described?

Rickettsia

500

A patient develops:

  • Fever and malaise
  • A characteristic bull's-eye rash
  • Later arthritis and carditis

The infection occurred after a tick bite.

Identify the disease AND its mode of transmission.

Lyme disease; penetration via a tick bite.

It is caused by Borrelia burgdorferi, a spirochete that the lecture notes is neither Gram-positive nor Gram-negative

500

A patient presents with:

  • Rapid onset of high fever
  • Rash
  • Hypotension
  • Myalgia
  • Vomiting and diarrhea
  • Progression toward multiorgan failure

The responsible bacteria produced toxins acting as superantigens, causing massive T-cell activation and cytokine production. What syndrome should you suspect? 

Toxic shock syndrome (TSS)

500

A virus:

  • Attaches to CD4+ T cells
  • Releases viral RNA into the cell
  • Produces proviral DNA
  • Integrates into the host's DNA
  • Eventually causes loss of immune function through loss of T-helper cells

A. Identify the virus.
B. Name ONE opportunistic infection from the lecture that may occur with severe immunodeficiency.
C. What is the treatment?


A. HIV
B. Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia (PJP/PCP)
C. Antiretroviral drugs; treatment is not a cure.

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