Contact, Visual, & Parallel ILS Approaches
SDF & RPM Approaches
RVR & Side Step Approaches
Missed Approaches
ILS Components
100
A contact approach is an approach procedure that may be used
A. in lieu of conducting a SIAP.
B. if assigned by ATC and will facilitate the approach.
C. in lieu of a visual approach.
A. in lieu of conducting a SIAP.
100
What are the main differences between the SDF and the localizer of an ILS?
A. The usable off-course indications are limited to 35° for the localizer and up to 90° for the SDF.
B. The SDF course may not be aligned with the runway and the course may be wider.
C. The course width for the localizer will always be 5° while the SDF course will be between 6° and 12°.
B. The SDF course may not be aligned with the runway and the course may be wider.
100
The RVR minimums for takeoff or landing are published in an IAP, but RVR is inoperative and cannot be reported for the runway at the time. Which of the following would apply?
A. RVR minimums which are specified in the procedure should be converted and applied as ground visibility.
B. RVR minimums may be disregarded, providing the runway has an operative HIRL system.
C. RVR minimums may be disregarded, providing all other components of the ILS system are operative.
A. RVR minimums which are specified in the procedure should be converted and applied as ground visibility.
100
If the pilot loses visual reference while circling to land from an instrument approach and ATC radar service is not available, the missed approach action should be to
A. execute a climbing turn to parallel the published final approach course and climb to the initial approach altitude.
B. climb to the published circling minimums then proceed direct to the final approach fix.
C. make a climbing turn toward the landing runway and continue the turn until established on the missed approach course.
C. make a climbing turn toward the landing runway and continue the turn until established on the missed approach course.
100
Which pilot action is appropriate if more than one component of an ILS is unusable?
A. Use the highest minimum required by any single component that is unusable.
B. Request another approach appropriate to the equipment that is usable.
C. Raise the minimums a total of that required by each component that is unusable.
A. Use the highest minimum required by any single component that is unusable.
200
A pilot arrives at the destination airport on an IFR flight plan. Which is a prerequisite condition for the performance of a contact approach?
A. A ground visibility of at least 2 SM.
B. A flight visibility of at least 1/2 NM.
C. Clear of clouds and at least 1 SM flight visibility.
C. Clear of clouds and at least 1 SM flight visibility.
200
How wide is an SDF course?
A. Either 3° or 6°.
B. Varies from 5° to 10°.
C. Either 6° or 12°.
C. Either 6° or 12°.
200
If the RVR is inoperative for the runway in use, pilots must
A. Convert RVR minimums and use the value as ground visibility.
B. Convert RVR minimums and use the value as slant-range visibility.
C. Convert RVR minimums and use the next lower value as flight visibility.
A. Convert RVR minimums and use the value as ground visibility.
200
When conducting a missed approach from the RNAV (GPS) X RWY 28L approach at PDX, what is the Minimum Safe Altitude (MSA) while maneuvering?
A. 2,100 feet MSL.
B. 4,000 feet MSL.
C. 5,800 feet MSL.
C. 5,800 feet MSL.
200
Which substitution is appropriate during an ILS approach?
A. A VOR radial crossing the outer marker site may be substituted for the outer marker.
B. LOC minimums should be substituted for ILS minimums whenever the glide slope becomes inoperative.
C. DME, when located at the localizer antenna site, should be substituted for either the outer or middle marker.
B. LOC minimums should be substituted for ILS minimums whenever the glide slope becomes inoperative.
300
Flying clear of clouds on an instrument flight plan, what are the requirements for a contact approach to an airport that has an approved IAP?
A. The controller must determine that the pilot can see the airport at the altitude flown and can remain clear of clouds.
B. The controller must have determined that the visibility was at least 1 mile and be reasonably sure the pilot can remain clear of clouds.
C. The pilot must request the approach, have at least 1 mile visibility, and be reasonably sure of remaining clear of clouds.
C. The pilot must request the approach, have at least 1 mile visibility, and be reasonably sure of remaining clear of clouds.
300
A Precision Runway Monitor (PRM) approach requires
A. simultaneously monitoring two frequencies.
B. special training to monitor two ILS receivers simultaneously.
C. tracking performance parameters at the decision point.
A. simultaneously monitoring two frequencies.
300
RVR minimums for landing are prescribed in an IAP, but RVR is inoperative and cannot be reported for the intended runway at the time. Which of the following would be an operational consideration?
A. RVR minimums which are specified in the procedures should be converted and applied as ground visibility.
B. RVR minimums may be disregarded, providing the runway has an operative HIRL system.
C. RVR minimums may be disregarded, providing all other components of the ILS system are operative.
A. RVR minimums which are specified in the procedures should be converted and applied as ground visibility.
300
The missed approach point for the DUC RNAV (GPS) RWY 17 (LNAV/VNAV) procedure is
A. 1,903 feet MSL.
B. 300 feet AGL.
C. 0.8 NM from runway threshold.
A. 1,903 feet MSL.
300
Immediately after passing the final approach fix in bound during an ILS approach in IFR conditions, the glide slope warning flag appears. The pilot is
A. permitted to continue the approach and descend to the DH.
B. permitted to continue the approach and descend to the localizer MDA.
C. required to immediately begin the prescribed missed approach procedure.
B. permitted to continue the approach and descend to the localizer MDA.
400
When is radar service terminated during a visual approach?
A. Automatically when ATC instructs the pilot to contact the tower.
B. Immediately upon acceptance of the approach by the pilot.
C. When ATC advises, “Radar service terminated; resume own navigation.”
A. Automatically when ATC instructs the pilot to contact the tower.
400
Precision Runway Monitoring (PRM) is
A. an airborne RADAR system for monitoring approaches to two runways.
B. a RADAR system for monitoring approaches to closely spaced parallel runways.
C. a high update rate RADAR system for monitoring multiple aircraft ILS approaches to a single runway.
B. a RADAR system for monitoring approaches to closely spaced parallel runways.
400
When cleared to execute a published sidestep maneuver for a specific approach and landing on the parallel runway, at what point is the pilot expected to commence this maneuver?
A. At the published minimum altitude for a circling approach.
B. As soon as possible after the runway or runway environment is in sight.
C. At the localizer MDA minimum and when the runway is in sight.
B. As soon as possible after the runway or runway environment is in sight.
400
At what point would a pilot execute the missed approach for the LNAV RWY 30 approach at LBF?
A. 1.5 NM from the RW 30 waypoint for LNAV.
B. The BEMXI waypoint for the LNAV.
C. RW 30 waypoint for the LNAV.
C. RW 30 waypoint for the LNAV.
400
When installed with the ILS and specified in the approach procedures, DME may be used
A. in lieu of the OM.
B. in lieu of visibility requirements.
C. to determine distance from TDZ.
A. in lieu of the OM.
500
Which of the following statements is true regarding Parallel ILS approaches?
A. Parallel ILS approach runway centerlines are separated by at least 4,300 feet and standard IFR separation is provided on the adjacent runway.
B. Parallel ILS approaches provide aircraft a minimum of 1 1/2 miles radar separation between successive aircraft on the adjacent localizer course.
C. Landing minimums to the adjacent runway will be higher than the minimums to the primary runway, but will normally be lower than the published circling minimums.
B. Parallel ILS approaches provide aircraft a minimum of 1 1/2 miles radar separation between successive aircraft on the adjacent localizer course.
500
While flying a 3° glide slope, a constant tailwind shears to a calm wind. Which conditions should the pilot expect?
A. Airspeed and pitch attitude decrease and there is a tendency to go below glide slope.
B. Airspeed and pitch attitude increase and there is a tendency to go below glide slope.
C. Airspeed and pitch attitude increase and there is a tendency to go above glide slope.
C. Airspeed and pitch attitude increase and there is a tendency to go above glide slope.
500
Assume this clearance is received:
“CLEARED FOR ILS RUNWAY 07 LEFT APPROACH, SIDE-STEP TO RUNWAY 07 RIGHT.”
When would the pilot be expected to commence the side-step maneuver?
A. As soon as possible after the runway environment is in sight.
B. Any time after becoming aligned with the final approach course of Runway 07 left, and after passing the final approach fix.
C. After reaching the circling minimums for Runway 07 right.
A. As soon as possible after the runway environment is in sight.
500
For a stabilized approach on GPS RWY 3 at 0WK, the aircraft must be in an approved configuration for landing
A. with the engines spooled up, before descending below 1,768 feet MSL.
B. with the correct speed and on glide path before descending below 1,268 feet MSL.
C. with a descent rate of less than 1,000 fpm below 1,080 feet MSL and bank angles of less than 15° below 500 feet AGL.
B. with the correct speed and on glide path before descending below 1,268 feet MSL.
500
The rate of descent on the glide slope depends on
A. true airspeed.
B. indicated airspeed.
C. ground speed.
C. ground speed.