Treatment of Locally Advanced Prostate Cancer
Minimally Invasive Urinary Diversion
Renal Physiology and Pathophysiology
Robotic and Laparoscopic Bladder Surgery
Upper Urinary Tract Trauma
200

Identification of patients with high-risk prostate cancer is best achieved by:

a. transrectal ultrasonography.

b. serum prostate-specific antigen (PSA).

c. digital rectal examination.

d. serum PSA, biopsy grade, clinical stage.

e. PSA kinetics.

d. Serum PSA, biopsy grade, clinical stage. Although clinical stage, serum

PSA, and Gleason score all individually predict pathologic stage and

prognosis, the combination of these three variables increases the accuracy of

this assessment.

200

Regarding perioperative thromboprophylaxis treatment after robot-assisted

radical cystectomy, which of the following is TRUE?

a. Pneumatic compressions and leg stockings are adequate.

b. Low-molecular-weight heparin can be used as a single dose before the

operation.

c. Low-molecular-weight heparin should be continued until 4 weeks after

surgery.

d. Both mechanical and pharmacologic prophylaxes are adequate for 48

hours perioperatively.

e. No prophylaxis.

c. Low-molecular-weight heparin should be continued until 4 weeks after

surgery. Based on 939 patients who underwent robot-assisted radical

cystectomy, the incidence of hematologic and vascular complications was

10%. A survey of urologists who were aware of the American Urological

Association (AUA) Best Practice Statement guidelines revealed that 51%

were likely to use thromboprophylaxis (odds ratio, 1.4, confidence interval,

1.2-1.6). Eighteen percent of urologic oncologists and/or laparoscopic/robotic

specialists and 34% of nonurologic oncologists and/or laparoscopic/robotic

specialists avoided routine thromboprophylaxis in patients undergoing radical

cystectomy. The former were more likely to use thromboprophylaxis

(P < .0001) than other respondents. Urologists graduating after the year 2000

used thromboprophylaxis in high-risk patients undergoing radical cystectomy

more often than did earlier graduates (79.2% vs. 63.4%, P < .0001). Based on

the American College of Surgeons NSQIP (National Surgical Quality

Improvement Program) database from 1307 patients who underwent

radical cystectomy, the mean time to venous thromboembolism diagnosis

was 15.2 days postoperatively; 55% of all venous thromboembolism

events were diagnosed after patient discharge home. It is recommended to

consider extended duration pharmacologic prophylaxis (4 weeks) in this highrisk

surgical population.

200

The AT1 receptor:

a. has a more pronounced vasoconstriction on the afferent rather than the

efferent arteriole.

b. is the receptor for angiotensin I.

c. protects against ischemia-reperfusion injury by intrarenal dilation.

d. mediates increased release of aldosterone.

e. is not expressed in the kidney.

d. Mediates increased release of aldosterone. AT1, the receptor for

angiotensin II, mediates the release of aldosterone. Intrarenal dilatation is

mediated through AT2.

200

Laparoscopic ureteral reimplantation can be performed:

a. with a cross-trigonal approach.

b. with a Boari flap or bladder advancement flap.

c. with a psoas hitch.

d. via a traditional laparoscopic or robotic approach.

e. all of the above.

e. All of the above. All of the included answers are correct regarding

laparoscopic ureteral reimplantation. Minimally invasive ureteral reimplant

can be performed in a refluxing or nonrefluxing fashion, and with a crosstrigonal

or tunneled approach if so desired. In cases with larger ureteral loss, a

Boari flap or bladder advancement flap can be utilized, or a psoas hitch can

be performed replicating open techniques. Finally, both a laparoscopic and

robotic approach to ureteral reimplantation has been described.

200

What is the best option for repair of midureteral transection after a stab

wound?

a. Ureteroureterostomy

b. Transureteroureterostomy

c. Boari flap

d. Nephrectomy

e. Cutaneous ureterostomy

a. Ureteroureterostomy. Ureteroureterostomy, so-called end-to-end repair in

injuries to the upper two thirds of the ureter, is common (up to 32% of one

large series) and has a reported success rate as high as 90%.

400

Neoadjuvant androgen deprivation (AD) before radical prostatectomy leads

to:

a. improved biochemical-free survival.

b. improved overall survival.

c. reduced positive surgical margins.

d. reduced local recurrence.

e. increased operative morbidity.

c. Reduced positive surgical margins. The randomized and

nonrandomized studies of neoadjuvant androgen deprivation in men

with lower clinical stage (cT1-T2) clearly demonstrate a reduction in the

rate of positive surgical margins; however, this advantage has not been

observed in men with cT3c and has not translated into improved longterm

PSA-free survival.

400

During robotic-assisted radical cystectomy and intracorporeal urinary

diversion:

a. use of a 30-degree up lens is advantageous for a deep female pelvis.

b. a 0-degree lens can be used for the entire procedure.

c. the camera port is inserted below the umbilicus.

d. the camera can be easily switched to another robotic port.

e. a five-port configuration is used.

b. A 0-degree lens can be used for the entire procedure. The majority of

robot-assisted radical prostatectomy procedures use different lenses for the

procedure. During robot-assisted radical cystectomy, surgeons prefer a 0-

degree lens. Special situations of a narrow, deep pelvis in association with

obesity can require a 30-degree down lens for better visualization, especially

for the proximal portion of the extended lymph node dissection.

400

Which of the following statements about endothelin is FALSE?

a. Stimulation of endothelin-1 (ET-1) decreases sodium excretion.

b. Endothelin is the most potent vasoconstrictor yet identified.

c. ET-1 release is inhibited by nitric oxide.

d. ET-1 release stimulates aldosterone secretion.

e. ET-1 release reduces renal blood flow.

a. Stimulation of endothelin-1 (ET-1) decreases sodium excretion. Despite

reduction in renal blood flow, stimulation of ET-1 by endothelin increases net

sodium excretion.

400

All of the following are essential surgical aspects of the Boari flap or bladder

advancement flap EXCEPT:

a. an adequate-sized bladder must be present (200 to 300 mL).

b. the contralateral vesical pedicle may be transected if necessary.

c. the bladder flap should be slightly shorter than anticipated because

bladder tissue can be easily stretched.

d. a tension-free anastomosis is important.

e. typically, a refluxing ureteral anastomosis is created.

c. The bladder flap should be slightly shorter than anticipated because

bladder tissue can be easily stretched. A tension-free anastomosis of the

anterolateral bladder flap based on the ipsilateral vesical pedicle is critical.

The bladder flap should be somewhat longer and wider than anticipated

because the nondistended bladder shrinks in size, thus placing tension on

the anastomosis. Ideally, a flap length-to-breadth ratio of 3:1 ensures

good vascularity of its apex.

400

When ureteroureterostomy is performed, which of the following is required?

a. Postoperative retroperitoneal Penrose drain

b. Postoperative nephrostomy drain

c. Spatulated, watertight repair

d. Nonabsorbable sutures

e. Intraperitonealization of the ureteral anastomosis

c. Spatulated, watertight repair. Repair ureters under magnification with

spatulated, tension-free, stented, watertight anastomosis and place a

retroperitoneal closed suction drain.

600

The use of AD in combination with radiation therapy for those with high-risk

cancers is associated with all of the following EXCEPT:

a. improved local control.

b. improved biochemical-free survival.

c. less gastrointestinal toxicity.

d. worsened sexual function.

e. more urinary frequency.

c. Less gastrointestinal toxicity. The longer application (longer than 6 to 9

months) of AD in conjunction with radiation therapy may be associated with

increased rectal morbidity as well as sexual dysfunction.

600

Before embarking on intracorporeal urinary diversion, it is important to:

a. perform a bowel segment washout.

b. de-dock the robot and change the attachments to the ports.

c. de-dock the robot and reduce the steep Trendelenburg position for both

ileal conduit and neo bladder.

d. de-dock the robot and reposition the port to a new configuration for

urinary diversion.

e. de-dock the robot and reduce the steep Trendelenburg position for

neobladder only.

e. De-dock the robot and reduce the steep Trendelenburg position for

neobladder only. Traditionally, a steep Trendelenburg position has been used

to avoid bowel in the operative field and also to get direct access to the deeper

pelvis. Unfortunately, this works against intracorporeal neobladder, as

urethral-neobladder anastomosis is difficult if the bowel tries to retract back

into the abdominal cavity and is under tension. The ideal solution introduced

by the Karolinska Institute group is reducing Trendelenburg and reversing the

steps by performing the urethra-neobladder anastomosis during the initial part

of the procedure.

600

Which of the following is a vasodilator of the renal artery?

a. Endothelin

b. Carbon monoxide

c. Atrial natriuretic peptide

d. Norepinephrine

e. Angiotensin II

b. Carbon monoxide. The others are vasoconstrictors.

600

Which of the following statements is NOT correct regarding laparoscopic

enterocystoplasty?

a. Subtotal cystectomy is not always mandatory.

b. Mesenteric pedicle of the selected bowel segment is wide and broadbased.

c. Mesenteric window is closed.

d. Reestablishment of bowel continuity is a critical step of the operation

and may be performed extracorporeally for added security, if

necessary.

e. Bowel-to-bladder anastomosis is optimally performed with interrupted

serosa-to-serosa sutures.

e. Bowel-to-bladder anastomosis is optimally performed with interrupted

serosa-to-serosa sutures. The technical principles of enterocystoplasty are

identical between open surgical and laparoscopic techniques. Generous

mobilization of the bladder allows creation of an adequate anteroposterior

cystotomy. Subtotal cystectomy is necessary only in patients with severely

symptomatic interstitial cystitis. An optimal segment of bowel based on a

broad, well-vascularized mesenteric pedicle is selected that will reach the

pelvis without tension. The bowel segment is isolated and bowel continuity

reestablished by either intracorporeal or extracorporeal techniques, and the

mesenteric window is closed. The isolated bowel segment is detubularized,

and a bowel plate is created appropriately. A tension-free, watertight, fullthickness,

circumferential, running anastomosis of the bowel segment to the

bladder is created. Adequate urinary drainage is established.

600

Which maneuver is cited as a cause of ureteral injury during stone basketing?

a. Ureteroscopy without dilating the ureteral orifice first

b. Ureteroscopy in nondilated systems

c. Use of the holmium laser

d. Pulsatile saline irrigation to assist visualization

e. Persistence in stone basketing attempts in the face of a ureteral tear

e. Persistence in stone basketing attempts in the face of a ureteral tear.

One factor cited as a cause of injury was the persistence in stone basketing

attempts after recognition of a ureteral tear. Current recommendations are to

stop and place a ureteral stent.

800

In men with locally advanced prostate cancer undergoing prostatectomy,

clinical overstaging (i.e., pathologically organ confined disease) occurs in:

a. less than 10%.

b. 15% to 30%.

c. 40% to 60%.

d. 70% to 80%.

e. more than 90%.

b. 15% to 30%. Recent data suggest that clinical overstaging occurs in

approximately 27% of men with clinical stage T3 disease undergoing

prostatectomy, consistent with the range in the literature of 7% to 26%.

800

During robot-assisted intracorporeal urinary diversion, the benefit of the

marionette stitch is to:

a. identify the distal and proximal ends of the conduit.

b. help in retaining orientation of the bowel.

c. allow free movement of the bowel segment for creation of the conduit.

d. prevent leakage of bowel contents during the creation of the conduit.

e. allow free movement of the bowel segment and prevent inadvertent

movements of the robotic instruments.

c. Allow free movement of the bowel segment for creation of the conduit.

Because of the multiple detailed steps required during intracorporeal urinary

diversion in a narrow operative space, the marionette stitch helps in

controlling the area of focus by acting as a retraction and exposing the correct

surgical space to perform the right and left uretero-ileal anastomosis.

800

Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding carbon monoxide

(CO) and the enzyme hemoxygenase?

a. Hemoxygenase-2 (HO-2) is a constitutive enzyme.

b. HO-1 is an inducible enzyme.

c. Increased CO increases ischemia-reperfusion injury in the kidney.

d. HO-1 expression helps to maintain renal medullary blood flow.

e. HO-1 produces CO through the catabolism of heme.

c. Increased CO increases ischemia-reperfusion injury in the kidney. CO

is protective against renal ischemia-reperfusion injury.

800

Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding partial cystectomy?

a. Thirty percent to 40% of patients with bladder cancer are candidates

for a partial cystectomy.

b. Five-year survival rates range from 80% to 90%.

c. Laparoscopic partial cystectomy is now an established procedure.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

e. None of the above. In large series of patients with bladder cancer, fewer

than 10% of the patients are candidates for a partial cystectomy. In the

properly selected patient, 5-year survival rate ranges from 50% to 70%.

Laparoscopic partial cystectomy has only been performed in a few selected

cases and is currently a controversial procedure.

800

Which of the following statements is TRUE about ureteral injuries during

laparoscopy?

a. The total number of injuries has stayed steady over the years.

b. Surgery for endometriosis greatly increases the risk.

c. Bipolar cautery use during tubal ligation eliminates risk.

d. Most ureteral injuries are recognized immediately.

e. Indigo carmine dye eliminates the risk of injury.

b. Surgery for endometriosis greatly increases the risk. A large percentage

of ureteral injuries after gynecologic laparoscopy occur during electrosurgical

or laser-assisted lysis of endometriosis.

1000

By using the Kattan postoperative nomogram, which of the following

contributes most to the risk of biochemical recurrence after radical

prostatectomy?

a. Positive surgical margin

b. Pretreatment serum PSA of 17 ng/mL

c. Gleason 4 + 3 disease

d. Established capsular penetration

e. Seminal vesicle invasion

b. Pretreatment serum PSA of 17 ng/mL. Despite the trend toward lower

serum PSA at the time of diagnosis, PSA remains an important predictor

of treatment failure, and greater elevations (greater than 8 ng/mL) of

PSA contribute significantly to calculated biochemical recurrence.

1000

During creation of the neobladder, mobilization of the bowel to reach the

urethra can be achieved by all of the following EXCEPT:

a. reducing the Trendelenburg position.

b. using a Penrose drain for gentle traction and stretching.

c. mobilization of the urethra cephalad.

d. incising the peritoneum over the mesentery.

e. dissection of the ileum around the ileocecal junction.

c. Mobilization of the urethra cephalad. Traditionally, a steep

Trendelenburg position has been used to avoid bowel in the operative field

and also to gain direct access to the deeper pelvis. Unfortunately this works

against intracorporeal neobladder because urethral-neobladder anastomosis is

difficult if the bowel tries to retract back into the abdominal cavity and is in

tension. Several options used to reduce tension and ease anastomosis include

reducing Trendelenburg, performing the urethra-neobladder anastomosis at

the beginning of the procedure, incising the peritoneum over the mesentery,

dissection of the ileum around the ileocecal junction, and, finally, using

temporary traction for stretching and holding the bowel in place for

anastomosis.

1000

Which of the following statements regarding erythropoiesis is FALSE?

a. Reduced erythropoiesis and anemia are common in chronic renal

disease.

b. Erythropoiesis is inhibited by low circulating oxygen tension.

c. During chronic inflammation, erythropoiesis is decreased.

d. The kidney makes most of the erythropoietin in the body.

e. There are erythropoietin receptors in many organs of the body.

b. Erythropoiesis is inhibited by low circulating oxygen tension.

Erythropoiesis is increased by low circulating oxygen tension.

1000

Which of the following is a contraindication for laparoscopic radical

cystectomy today?

a. Multiple bladder tumors

b. Nonbulky, invasive bladder cancer

c. T4 disease

d. Moderate obesity

e. Open pelvic surgery

c. T4 disease. Laparoscopic radical cystectomy is an emerging procedure

performed at centers of laparoscopic expertise. At this writing, laparoscopic

radical cystectomy should be offered to nonobese patients with nonbulky,

organ-confined bladder cancer without pelvic lymphadenopathy on

preoperative computed tomography (CT). Various conditions such as morbid

obesity, prior radiotherapy, or pelvic surgery are relative contraindications

because of the increase in laparoscopic technical complexity. Locally

advanced T4 disease should not be approached laparoscopically.

1000

Which imaging technique is most useful for detecting ureteral injuries after

trauma?

a. Computed tomography (CT) without use of contrast material

b. CT with use of contrast agent, obtained immediately after injection of

the contrast agent

c. CT with the use of contrast material, obtained 20 minutes after

injection of the contrast agent

d. Intravenous pyelography

e. Furosemide (Lasix) renography

c. CT with the use of contrast material, obtained 20 minutes after

injection of the contrast agent. Because modern helical CT scanners can

obtain images before intravenous contrast dye is excreted in the urine,

delayed images must be obtained (5 to 20 minutes after contrast material

injection) to allow contrast material to extravasate from the injured collecting

system, renal pelvis, or ureter.

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