Regulation, Policy, and Framework
ATO RMF Process
Roles and Responsibilities within USCIS  
System Description, Funding, Constraints, and Roles
Inventory Change Request (ICR & UII)
FIPS-199/200, RTM Spreadsheet, and eAuth
Privacy (PIA/PTA)
100

This structured approach helps implement policies, strategies, or processes effectively.

What are frameworks?

100

This acronym stands for a structured framework developed by NIST for managing information security and privacy risks.

What is RMF (Risk Management Framework)?

100

This individual designates the ISSO for a system.

Who is the System Owner?

100

This is the average timeframe for obtaining an Authority to Operate (ATO) approval.

What is 6–9 months?

100

'UII' stands for _________.

What is Unique Investment Identifier?

100

This is the primary purpose of FIPS 199.

What is 'to determine the system's impact of the confidentiality, integrity, or availability of the data stored, processed, and/or transmitted'?

100

A ______ is used to determine whether a system or project involves PII requires a PIA.

What is a Privacy Threshold Analysis?

200

USCIS ISSOs must reference this core document and its attachments for security planning.

What is DHS 4300A?

200

This framework is a structured, repeatable process developed by NIST for managing information security and privacy risks.

What is the primary purpose of the Risk Management Framework (RMF)?

200

These are the officially appointed roles in the ATO lifecycle.

Who are A/ISSOs, System Owner, Authorizing Official (AO)?

200

These types of information should be considered for processing, storing, and transmitting.

What are data types, elements, internal/external/publicly available information?

200

Inventory Change Request (ICR & UII).

What is the Component Level?

200

This document provides a general understanding of Digital Identity requirements and methods for performing respective analyses.

What is the e-Authentication?

200

______ is required when a system or project collects, uses, stores, or disseminates PII.

What is a PIA?

300

These are potential consequences of failing to comply with regulatory requirements.

What are suspension, termination, fines, and imprisonment?

300

This is the distinction between a regulation and a policy, where one is a legally enforceable rule issued by an authority and the other is a guiding principle or course of action adopted by an organization.

What is the difference between a regulation and a policy?

300

System Owners must first sign off on these for items that cannot be remediated within allocated timeframes

What are Risk Acceptances/Waivers?

300

Besides initial development, funding should also cover these aspects throughout the SDLC.

What are maintenance and continuous support?

300

A UII is required in IT Acquisition Reviews (ITARs) for this reason.

What is 'To ensure compliance with policies governing the budget process and manage business cases'?

300

____Impact Level references 'Severe or catastrophic adverse effect on organizational operations, assets, or individuals'

What is 'High' Impact?

300

This individual is ultimately responsible for completing a PTA within DHS.

Who is the System Owner?

400

USCIS ISSOs must be familiar with this regulation, updated in 2014.

What is the Federal Information Security Modernization Act (FISMA)?

400

This formal acceptance of risk grants permission for a system to operate within the Federal Government.

What is an Authority to Operate (ATO)?

400

Waivers, Risk Acceptance Requests, and authorizations including entry into the Ongoing Authorization Program.

What is Advising the AO, certifying system prerequisites, serving as the Risk Executive and/or overseeing the Component Cybersecurity Program?

400

These are the three main types of constraints to consider during system development.

What are time, resources, and technical feasibility?

400

The FISMA ID is important for DHS IT systems for this reason.

It ensures systems are itemized, associated with funding sources, and security requirements are met.

400

________ is the robustness of the authentication process and the binding between an authenticator and a specific individual’s identifier

What is Authentication Assurance Level (AAL)?

400

Information that can be used to identify an individual, such as name, SSN, or email address is also known as _______?

What is Personally Identifiable Information (PII)?

500

Under FISMA (2014 update), DHS/CISA issues these directives to civilian agencies.

What are Binding Operational Directives (BODs)?

500

These are the key elements required for granting an Authority to Operate (ATO).

What are risk-based decision-making, risk appetite, operational requirements, time constraints, and continuous monitoring?

500

The CISO has signature authority for these documents and processes.

What are Waivers, Risk Acceptance Requests, and authorizations including entry into the Ongoing Authorization Program?

500

These must be completed before an ISSO and SO are officially designated.

What are training and designation letters?

500

These are the four elements of a FISMA ID.

What are the DHS Component ID, CSAM ID, System Type, Parent CSAM ID?

500

Name 3 of the 6 potential impact categories for authentication errors.

What are: Inconvenience/distress/reputation, financial loss, harm to agency programs/public interests, unauthorized release of sensitive information, personal safety, civil/criminal violations?

500

These are the key components of a PIA.

What are system description, PII analysis, privacy risks, and mitigation strategies?

600

This directive requires federal agencies to remediate Known Exploited Vulnerabilities (KEV) on a time-bound schedule.

What is CISA BOD 22-01?

600

This official can mandate system use without a full ATO, but additional safeguards are required during ATO pursuit.

Can an Authorizing Official mandate system use without a full ATO?

600

This is the AO’s role in the security authorization process.

What is Making the final security decision, accepting risk, and/or signing the authorization decision letter?

600

This is one risk associated with using Commercial Off-The-Shelf (COTS) products.

What is vendor lock? and/or 

What is the risk of vulnerabilities or lack of customization in Commercial Off-The-Shelf (COTS) products as it relates to information security?

600

These systems track investments using UII codes. (Name at least 3 of 4.)

What are the INVEST, ITAR, CSAM, OMB Federal IT Dashboard systems?

600

______, ________, and _________ are the robustness of the authentication process and the binding between an authenticator and a specific individual’s identifier.

What are the: Identity Assurance Level (IAL), Authentication Assurance Level (AAL), Federation Assurance Level (FAL)?

600

A PTA determines if a PIA is necessary, while a PIA assesses privacy risks and compliance is known as the _______ between a PIA and PTA

What is the Difference between a PTA and PIA?

M
e
n
u