Heart Alert
Severe Sepsis
tPA & Pray
Code Aorta
Felliquis
Code M(ISC)
100

How do you detect MI in patients with paced rhythm or old LBBB

Modified Sgarbossa Criteria:

1. Concordant ST elevation ≥ 1 mm in ≥ 1 lead

2. Concordant ST depression ≥ 1 mm in ≥ 1 lead of V1-V3

3. Proportionally excessive discordant STE in ≥ 1 lead anywhere with ≥ 1 mm STE, as defined by ≥ 25% of the depth of the preceding S-wave

100

What is Reynold's pentad and what disease is it associated with 

Cholangitis - 

abdominal pain, fever, jaundice, altered mental status and shock 


100

What vital sign changes would make you concerned for brain herniation?

Cushing's reflex (2/2 increased ICP): hypertension, bradycardia, irregular respirations

100

What is the usual source of infection and diagnostic criteria for PMN Spontaneous Bacterial Peritonitis (SBP)?

E. coli translocation from gut

Paracentesis positive if: total WBC > 500, PMN (neutrophils) > 250, pH < 7.34, low glucose, (+) gram stain/culture.

100

Hypotensive pediatric trauma, what should the initial bolus of blood and IVF be?


pRBC: 10cc/kg, crystalloid: 20cc/kg


100

Diagnose this skin lesion



200

What medication can cause a bidirectional ventricular tachycardia?

Digoxin

200

What pathogen causes neonatal conjunctivitis with purulent discharge

Neisseria gonorrhoeae conjunctivitis

Tx: systemic cefotaxmine. Topical tx is not enough

200

What are the CSF findings for bacterial meningitis

Opening pressure: ↑, WBCs: ↑↑ (>1000; neutrophil predominance), protein: ↑, glucose: ↓


200

What pathology would you suspect in a patient presenting with blood in their stool after a recent AAA repair. What part of the body does this typically involve?

Aortoenteric fistula

Triad: GI bleed ("herald bleed") + abdominal pain + palpable mass

Rare, but high mortality. 

Duodenum is most commonly involved portion of the intestines.

200

What location of a dog bite is a candidate for primary closure?

Facial laceration (close approxiation is appropriate and does not lead to increased infection rates).

200

What is the most common cause of Small Bowel Obstruction?

Adhesions (very common with prior surgery) > tumor/mass > hernia

300

Name 4 causes of high output heart failure

Hyperthyroidism, Beriberi, AV Fistula, Severe anemia, Pregnancy

300

What two CNS mass lesions are associated with HIV/AIDS

1) Toxoplasmosis (multiple ring-enhancing lesions w/ edema)

2) CNS lymphoma (hyperdense, round enhancing lesions)

300

Best study to diagnose venous sinus thrombosis

MR venography = gold standard

300

Name 3 ways to treat bleeding from a trachea-innominate fistula

- Intubate to compress bleeding through trach site

- hyper-inflate cuff

- Compress vessel with finger.

300

What is the Parkland Formula 

Resuscitation volume = 4 cc/kg x TBSA% x wt (kg)

50% in first 8hr since time of burn, 50% over next 16hr

300

You suspect your patient has bacterial vaginosis, what 3 exam findings confirm your diagnosis and how do you treat it?

Caused by Gardnerella vaginalis

Amsel criteria (3 out of 4 means positive test)

- vaginal pH greater than 4.5

- fishy odor (positive whiff test)

- milky discharge

- presence of clue cells on microscopic examination of vaginal fluid.

Tx: metronidazole

400

What meets STEMI criteria for leads V2-V3 versus all other leads?

V2-V3:

- ≥2mm in MEN ≥ 40yrs 

- ≥2.5mm in MEN < 40yrs

- ≥ 1.5mm in WOMEN

All other leads: STE at the J-point of ≥ 1mm in two contiguous leads

400

Name 5 classic physical exam findings of Infective Endocarditis

- Osler Nodes (painful nodules on fingertips)

- Janeway Lesions (nontender hemorrhagic lesions on palms/soles)

- Roth Spots (retinal hemorrhages)

- Splinter hemorrhages (linear on nails)

- Petechiae

- New Murmur

400

What are the symptoms of anterior cord syndrome

Complete loss of motor function and sensation of pain and temperature below the injury. 

Vibration, proprioception, and light touch are preserved. 

400

What are 4 indications for emergent endosocopy for ingested foreign body?

- High-grade obstruction,

- object in esophagus >24hr, object >6cm

- sharp objects

- multiple objects swallowed

- button battery in esophagus

- button battery in stomach >48hr or if symptomatic (earlier)

400

What is the definition of a secondary blast injury?

Injury due to projectiles from explosion (penetrating trauma, amputations, lacs)

400

Most common cause of painless vaginal bleeding during pregnancy?

Placenta previa: placenta partially or completely covering cervical os, which causes bleeding when the os starts to dilate

500

With cardiac arrest, what drugs can be given to adult and pediatric patients via ET tube?

NAVEL (adults): Narcan, Atropine, Vasopressin, Epinephrine, Lidocaine 

LANE (peds): all except vasopressin

500

Under what CD4 count are HIV/AIDS patient at increased risk for CMV retinitis and what is the treatment?

CD4 <50 

CMV retinitis is an AIDS defining illness

SSx: ↓ visual acuity, floaters/visual field cuts, photophobia. 

Dx: Exam: white fluffy perivascular lesions with hemorrhage. 

Tx: IV gancyclovir


500

Name 2 ways to distinguish Simple from Complex Febrile Seizures

Complex febrile seizure: 

- Focal seziure

- Lasts >15 min 

- Two or more seizures in a 24-hr period 

500

Name 5 indications for emergent HD

"AEIOU"

Acidosis

Electrolytes (hyperK refractory to medical management)

Intoxication (toxins e.g. ethylene glycol, methanol, Li, etc.)

Overload (volume, any pulmonary edema)

Uremia with symptoms (e.g.pericarditis, AMS, BUN 100 or Cr 10)

500

What are the Salter Harris classifications for pediatric fractures (1-5)? 

500

What is the definition of an in inevitable abortion? 

Inevitable: vaginal bleeding + IUP + open os

600

What is the progression of EKG changes in a patient with ACS?

Hyperacute T (very early and transient)

ST Elevations

ST Depression (ischemia or reciprocal)

Q waves 

T wave inversions

600

What CXR findings can you expect to see in primary, reactivation and military TB?

Primary: lower lobes, looks like pneumonia

Reactivation: upper lobe granuloma ± cavitation. 

Miliary: scattered nodules (millet seeds) throughout lung fields

600

Name 5 absolute contraindications for tPA for CVA

- Neurosurgery, head trauma, or stroke in past 3 months

- ANY ICH (current or previously)

- Clinical suspicion for SAH

- Known intracranial arteriovenous malformation, neoplasm, or aneurysm

- Uncontrolled hypertension (>185 mmHg SBP or >110 mmHg DBP) after reduction attempted

- possible reversible cause

- active bleeding or coagulopathy (Plt <100k, INR >1.7, PT>15s)

- Glucose <50

- Suspected/confirmed endocarditis

600

What volume of blood defines massive hemotpysis?

≥ 50 mL single expectorant or ≥ 500 mL / 24-hr


600

What are the classifications of LeFort fractures

LeFort I: palate mobile (fx below nose)

LeFort II: palate + nose mobile (inferior orbits)

LeFort III: entire face is mobile (zygoma bone)

600

Name 5 ductal dependent congenital heart lesions and 1 side effect of the medication used to treat them

Lesions: coarctation of aorta, critical aortic stenosis, hypoplastic left heart, tricuspid atresia, tetralogy of fallot, transposition of the great vessels 

Tx: PGE1 (alprostadil) to reopen duct (side effects: hypotension, apnea, cardiac arrest)

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