Going Viral
IDK if it's pharm or micro but here we go
You Zoos, You Lose
See No Evil, Hear No Evil
Wild Card
100

What is the most common form of meningitis (1) and what are its most common causes (2)?

(1) Aseptic/viral meningitis

(2) Echoviruses & Coxsackie A + B viruses


100

(1) What are the most common causes of bacterial meningitis in neonates? (2) In older adults?

(1) Group B Streptococcus, Listeria monocytogenes, E. coli

(2) Neisseria meningitidis, Streptococcus pneumoniae, Listeria monocytogenes

100

(1) What viruses does the Aedes mosquito carry and where are they found? (2) What viruses does the Culez mosquito carry and where are they found?

(1) Dengue fever, yellow fever, EEEV, WEEV, VEEV; urban areas

(2) St. Louis encephalitis, West Nile encephalitis, EEEV, WEEV, VEEV; forest and urban areas

100

(1) _____ is the most common cause of neonatal conjunctivitis. (2) What presentation would you expect?

(1) Chlamydia trachomatis (acquired during birth)

(2) Copious mucopurulent discharge, sticking of lids

100

What is the classic triad of early symptoms of bacterial meningitis? 

Fever, headache, stiff neck (nuchal rigidity)

200

______ is the most common cause of sporadic encephalitis (1) and is usually limited to the ______ lobes (2).

*Bonus: what ages are more likely to be infected what which HSV strain*

HSV; temporal

*HSV-1 is usually the cause in kids 3 months or older, but in neonates, brain involvement is likely due to HSV-2*

200

What is the DOC for herpatic meningitis and what is its MOA?

Acyclovir; guanine analog that incorporates into DNA and inhibits viral DNA polymerase

200
LMCV is part of Family _____ and exposure to _____ is key for diagnosis.

Arenaviridae; hamsters/mice

200

(1) What is the most common cause of infectious corneal blindness?

(2) What is "Hutchinson's sign"?

(1) HSV-1, almost always unilateral

(2) Vesicles at tip of nose in VZV (indicates 75% of ocular squelae)

200

(1) What is the most common human prion disease? (2) What test is most diagnostic for prion diseases & what result would you expect to see?

(1) Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease

(2) MRI; cortical ribboning

300

(1) Describe the 2 phases of Rabies infection.

(2) What is the histopathology of the Rabies virus?

(1) -Incubation phase: virus replicates in the cytoplasm of the muscle at site of bite (length of incubation phase is determine by infectious dose & proximity of bite to CNS)

-Prodrome phase: virus infects peripheral nerves & travels to CNS (weeks-months)

(2) Bullet shaped virus, Negri bodies in neural tissue

300

How do CSF leukocyte, protein, & glucose levels differentiate between bacterial and viral meningitis?

*Bonus: what about for mycobacterial meningitis?*

Bacterial: high leukocytes, slightly elevated/high proteins, low glucose

Viral: slightly elevated/high leukocytes, normal/slightly elevated proteins, normal glucose

*Mycobacterial: high leukocytes, high proteins, low glucose*

300
Differentiate between EEEV, WEEV, VEEV

EEEV: begins abruptly; very severe abdominal pain; kids can develop edema; high mortality & permanent brain damage in many survivors

WEEV: milder febrile illness; pts who recover can have fatigue, headaches, & tremors for 2 years

VEEV: mild systemic illness; can affect fetus -> placental damage, abortion, stillbirth, neurologic damage

300

What are the 4 common causes of chorioretinitis?

CMV, toxoplasma gondii, toxocara canis, onchocerca volvulus

300

(1) Where is Naegleria fowleri found?

(2) What is the most infectious stage of Naegleria fowleri?

(3) What are the amoebas attracted to in the body?


(1) Freshwater lakes, soils, under chlorinate pools & waterparks

(2) Flagellated stage

(3) Neurotransmitters

400

What are the 4 clinical outcomes of poliovirus infection?

Asymptomatic illness (90%)

Abortive poliomyelitis (5%)

Nonparalytic/aseptic poliomyelitis (1-2%)

Paralytic polio (0.1-0.2%)

400

What is the DOC for each of the latent, primary, secondary, and tertiary phases of syphilitic meningitis?

Latent, primary, secondary: single, low dose of Benzathine Penicillin G

Tertiary: multiple, higher doses of Benzathine Penicillin G

400

(1) California encephalitis, Rift Valley fever, and Sandfly fever are all part of Family ______.

(2) This family can exhibit ______ transmission. What is that?

(1) Bunyaviridae

(2) Transovarial; virus survives in mosquito eggs over winter

400

(1) Why is AOM common in children?

(2) What is the most common cause of AOM?

(1) Eustachian tube is shorter, more flexible, & more horizontal; parental practices (bottle feeding, etc.); environmental issues (daycare, allergies, etc.)

(2) Streptococcus pneumoniae

400

(1) What is the most common cause of fungal meningitis and where is it found?

(2) What patient presentation would you expect?

(3) What therapy can exacerbate the meningitis?

(1) Cryptococcus neoformans; soil with pigeon guano

(2) Pneumonia, severe lymphopenia, meningitis symptoms

(3) HAART (improving CD4 numbers -> increased inflammatory response)

500

List and describe the 3 possible outcomes of paralytic polio

1) Paralytic poliomyelitis: asymmetric flaccid paralysis with no sensory loss

2) Bulbar poliomyelitis: involves the muscles of the pharynx, vocal cords, and respiration

3) Postpolio syndrome: sequela of poliomyelitis that occurs later in life (30 – 40 years post-infection) in 20% - 80% of original patients

500

(1) Acanthamoeba disease has been successfully treated with _____? (multiple answers)

(2) Primary amoebic meningoencephalitis (PAM) treatment includes ______ and the non-pharmacological treatment of _______.

(1) Pentamidine, chlorhexidine, -azole antifungals

(2) Amphotericin B/Miltefosine; therapeutic hypothermia

500

(1) West Nile Virus, Dengue fever, and Zika virus are part of the Family ______. 

(2) Differentiate between Dengue and Zika viruses

(1) Flaviviridae

(2) -Dengue fever: Dengue rash + breakbone fever; "original antigenic sin" phenomenon; Dengvaxia vaccination is available

-Zika: can be transmitted lots of ways; generally febrile illness with rash; treatment is supportive/symptomatic

500

(1) What is the most common cause of otitis externa?

(2) Describe malignant otitis externa

(1) Pseudomonas

(2) More severe infection that can spread to the skull, meninges, and brain; discharge of foul-smelling, yellow green pus; immunocompromised/diabetic patients

500

Differentiate between Clostridium tetani and Clostridium botulinum

Clostridium tetani: tennis racket appearance; 3 virulence factors (spore formation, tetanolysin, tetanospasmin); can be generalized or localized; treat with vaccine, Metronidazole, & debridement

Clostridium botulinum: 7 non-heat resistant toxins; foodborne, infant, or wound forms; treat with Metronidazole/Penicillin, antitoxin, & ventilatory support (don't give honey to your baby)

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