Alcohol & Substance Abuse
Growth & Development
Adult Psychopathology
Somatic Treatment Methods
Emergency Psychiatry
100
A patient named Arvid with a history of alcohol dependence presents to the ED with mental status changes and hypoglycemia. Prior to giving glucose, the physician should give? A) Dilantin B) thiamine C) diazepam D) magnesium E) folic acid
Give Arvid Thiamine
100
Which of the following is characteristic of preadolescent children's growth? A) growth occurs first in the hands and feet in the long bones B) growth of the trunk occurs earlier than growth of the head C) growth rate for boys lags behind the growth rate of girls D) growth of different areas of the body and different organs progresses at the same rate.
growth rate for boys lags behind the growth rate of girls
100
In the learned helplessness model, the behavorial deficits found in animals exposed to uncontrollable stress are reversed by which of the following substances? A) Lithium B) Stimulants C) Anxiolytics D) antipsychotics E) Antidepressants
What is Antidepressants
100
Which of the following is associated with increased severity of retrograde amnesia? A) shorter course of ECT B) Hx of pseudodementia C) Bilateral Electrode placement D) Less frequent admin of ECT
What is Bilateral electrode placement
100
A patient with a history of Bipolar Disorder presents with immobility, posturing and echopraxia. Which of the following interventions is considered first line? A) Lithium B) Haldol C) Lorazepam D) benztropine E) Sodium Valproate.
What is Lorazepam
200
Electrolyte disturbances common in people with chronic heavy alcohol use include which of the following? A) hyperkalemia and hyponatremia B) Hypercalcemia and hyponatremia C) hypomagnesemia and hypernatremia D) hyperphosphatemia and hypocalcemia E) Hypomagnesemia and hypophosphatemia
What is Hypomagnesemia and hypophosphatemia
200
Rapid eye movement (REM) sleep is first evident at which stage of development? A) in utero B) immediately post-partum' C) at 1 month age D) at 3 months of age
What is in utero
200
Recurrent episodes of unrestrained eating in the absence of inappropriate compensatory behaviors of bulimia nervosa are best characterized as: A) atypical anorexia B) Atypical bulimia C) binge eating disorder D) Klein-Levin syndrome E) Kluver Bucy syndrome
What is binge eating disorder
200
Which of the following antidepressant medications would be the best choice to minimize the risk of orthostasis in an 84 year old man? A) Doxepin B) Amitriptyline C) Desipramine D) Nortriptyline
What is Nortriptyline
200
A cigarette smoker with a pack a day habit recognizes the need to quit smoking, but is not ready to commit to quitting. The patient states "I know smoking is bad for me and I know I'll feel better once I quit. I'll get serious about quitting next year. Which of the following is the patient's stage of change? A) Precontemplation B) Contemplation C) Preparation D) Action E) Maintenance
What is Contemplation
300
Which of the following is a disadvantage of the use of shorter half-life benzodiazepines in the treatment of alcohol withdrawal? A) increased likelihood of oversedation B) increased likelihood of grand mal seizures C) increased likelihood of protracted abstinence syndrome D) less effectiveness mg for mg E) the presence of active metabolites
What is increased likelihood of grand mal seizures
300
Starting around age 3 years, children spontaneously use language in which of the following ways? A) articulating internal emotions B) conceptualizing problems C) describing past events D) self-regulating E) moralizing
What is describing past events
300
Patients with cluster A personality disorders, also known as schizophrenia-spectrum disorders, frequently show which of the following symptoms? A) Catatonia B) Social Withdrawal C) Inappropriate affect D) Disorganized thinking E) command hallucination
What is social withdrawal
300
In studies that compare SSRIs vs TCAs, which of the following is the best documented advantage of SSRIs over TCAs? A) Fewer drug-drug interactions B) More rapid time from initiation of effect C) Lower dropout rates due to side effects D) Greater efficacy in inpatient depressed patients
What is Lower drop out rates due to side effects
300
A patient with a history of schizophrenia treated with hadol 5mg PO BID presents to the ED with a complaint of being "unable to see". The patient appears to be in significant distress with writhing and moaning and also complains of being "unable to stop looking up" What is the most appropriate intervention? A) triheyphenidyl 1mg PO BID B) Ativan 1mg 1mg IV now C) Benztropine 1mg IV now D) Increase Haldol to 10mg PO BID E) Benadryl 25mg PO now.
What is give Benztropine 1mg IV now
400
A 23 year old named Juan presents to the ED at 4AM following a late night party. Initial examination of Juan reveals dehydration, dilated pupils, hypertension and elevated CPK. Juan admits to using drugs at the party. Woo hoo! Which of the following substances would best explain his presentation? A) MDMA B) Marijuana C) PCP D) Anabolic Steroids E) GHB
What is MDMA
400
A psychiatrist evaluates a child whose parent died in a car accident 6 weeks ago. Which of the following symptoms best differentiates chronic traumatic grief from uncomplicated bereavement? A) sleep distrubance B) difficulty concentrating C) loss of interest in usual activities D) persistent avoidance of death remainders E) pangs of grief at reminders of deceased parent
What is persistent avoidance of death remainders
400
Persons characterized by covert obstructionism, procrastination, stubborness and inefficiency may be classified as suffering from which of the following persnoality disorders outside of the DSM classification? A) depressive B) dependent C) dussocial D) emotionally unstable E) passive-aggressive
What is passive aggressive
400
A patient taking an antipsychotic medication develops akasthisia. The psychiatrist may switch the patient to either an atypical antipsychotic med or add: A) alprazolam B) guanaficine C) propanolol D) Phenobarbital
What is propanolol
400
Which of the following drugs is most appropriate in the emergency treatment of anticholinergic toxicity? A) Chlorpormazine B) Physostigmine C) Haldol D) Propanolol E) Atropine
What is Physostigmine
500
Withdrawal symptoms in chronic heroin users peak after what period of time? A) 2 hours B) 8 hours C) 36 hours D) 5 days E) 10 days
What is 36 hours
500
Which of the following neurotransmitters is the last to mature in the central nervous system of children and adolescents? A) noradrenergic B) dopaminergic C) serotoninergic D) cholinergic
serotoninergic
500
Generalized anxiety disorder is characterized by excessive worrying along with which of the following combinations of symptoms? A) Nausea and fear of dying B) somatization and derealization C) Sleep distrubance and being startled D) muscle tension and fear of going crazy E) Being easily fatigued and feeling keyed up
What is Being easily fatigued and feeling keyed up
500
Which of the following factors is thought to predict a poor response to lithium tx for patients with bipolar disorder? A) suicidal ideation B) Obsessional features C) Mania followed by depression D) Mixed manic/depressed episode E) Family Hx of bipolar disorder
What is Mixed manic/depressed episode
500
A patient presents to the ED after witnessing a tragic MVA in which an individual was killed. Presence of which of the following symptoms immediately following the event would increase the patient's risk of ultimately developing PTSD? A) Depression B) Dissociation C) Intense Fear D) Low level of arousal E) Inability to stop thinking about the incident.
What is Dissociation
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