Mobility
Which functional assessment is a priority when the nurse assesses a client with Parkinson's disease and notes a mask like face?
a. Ability to sense pain in the facial area
b. Ability to hear normal voice tones
c. Ability to chew and swallow
d. Ability to see in a dim lit environment
Answer:
C
Changes in facial expression or mask like face with wide-open, fixed, staring eyes is caused by rigidity of the facial muscles. In late-stage PD, this rigidity can lead to difficulties in chewing and swallowing, particularly if the pharyngeal muscles are involved. As a result, the client may have inadequate nutrition and uncontrolled drooling may occur.
Which measure will the nurse recommend to prevent harm when a client with MS is discharged home?
a. Avoid exercising outside
b. Immediately adapt the home for wheelchair access
c. Keep the home free of clutter
d. Install a ramp to the door of the home
Answer:
C
Before the client is discharged, it is important to assess the client's home for hazards. Any items that might interfere with mobility are removed. In addition, care must be taken to prevent injury resulting from vision problems. Teach the client and family to keep the home environment as structured an free from clutter as possible.
Which assessment is priority for the nurse to make in the immediate postoperative period for a client after bariatric surgery?
a. Asking the client to rate their pain
b. Checking oxygen saturation and respiratory effort
c. Examining the wound for indications of infection or dehiscence
d. Monitoring skinfold areas for cleanliness and indications of breakdown
Answer:
B.
Although all the listed assessments are important, airway management is the priority in the immediate postoperative period after bariatric surgery. Obese clients often have short, thick necks and compromised airways. These clients are more likely to need mechanical ventilation or other types of respiratory support to ensure adequate gas exchange.
Which assessment findings does the nurse expect to see in a client who has severe hypermagnesemia?
a. Bradycardia and hypotension
b. Tachycardia and weak palpable pulse
c. Hypertension and irritability
d. Irregular pulse and deep respirations
Answer:
a
Magnesium is a membrane stabilizer that decreases depolarization of all excitable membranes. As a result, heart rate is slower and the client can become hypotensive.
What priority action will the nurse take when providing care for a client with chest pain being treated with IV nitroglycerin?
a. Restrict the client to bedrest with use of a bedpan.
b. Elevate the head of the bed to 90 degrees.
c. Monitor blood pressure continuously.
d. Increase the dose rapidly to achieve pain relief.
Answer:
c
A serious side effect of nitroglycerin is hypotension, so it is essential that any client receiving this drug by the IV route be continuously monitored for blood pressure. Research has shown that use of bedpans is more stressful to the heart than the use of a bedside commode. Elevating the head of the bed to 90 degrees may not be a comfortable position for the client. Increasing the dose too rapidly could rapidly lead to hypotension.
Which collaborative problem will the nurse consider to have the highest priority when caring for a client with acute leukemia?
a. Providing pain control
b. Helping the client conserve energy
c. Protecting the client from infection
d. Minimizing the side effects of chemotherapy
Answer:
C
All the listed collaborative problems are important, however, infection prevention has the highest priority because clients are at risk for infection before, during and for awhile after treatment is completed.
Which acid-base imbalance will the nurse expect in a client with chronic kidney disease?
a. Respiratory acidosis
b. Metabolic acidosis
c. Respiratory alkalosis
d. Metabolic alkalosis
Answer:
b
Clients with chronic kidney disease are unable to excrete sufficient hydrogen ions or to reabsorb sufficient bicarbonate to maintain acid-base balance. This results in a metabolic acidosis. Although an increased rate of ventilation may also occur, it is not great enough to cause a respiratory alkalosis.
Clinical manifestations of autism spectrum disorders include which of the following?
a. social interaction deficits
b. communication deficits
c. behavior deficits
d. a, b, and c
Answer:
d
ASD affects the normal development of social interaction, communication skills, and behavior leading to deficits in all three categories
Which condition will the nurse most likely suspect as the cause of a client's symptoms of obstipation and failure to pass flatus?
a. Complete obstruction
b. Partial obstruction
c. Colorectal cancer
d. Singultus
Answer:
a.
Obstipation (no passage of stool) and failure to pass flatus are associated with complete obstruction. Singultus is hiccups.
Postnatal factors that may contribute to the development of Cerebral Palsy include:
a. Bacterial meningitis
b. Viral encephalitis
c. Motor vehicle accidents
d. Child abuse
e. a, b, c, and d.
Answer:
E
Infections that harm the CNS as well as traumatic brain injuries can contribute to the development of CP after a child is born.
Which assessment finding indicates to the nurse the possibility of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) of the client?
a. Use of penicillin prophylactically before dental examinations and procedures
b. Intermittent fever and fatigue with no other symptoms of infection
c. Joint and muscle pain without swelling after exercise
d. Oily skin and increased facial acne
Answer:
B.
The most common recurrent symptoms presenting in clients with SLE are unexplained intermittent fever and fatigue (often with swollen and painful joints) with no other indicators of infection. These occur even when other members of the household do not have these symptoms. Penicillin is not a drug that causes manifestations of SLE. Joint and muscle pain after exercise usually just results from the exercise, especially when joint swelling is not present, not SLE. Although skin lesions may be present on the face and elsewhere on the body, the skin is not oily and the lesions are not acne.
Which action will the nurse take first to promote adequate intake in a client who is malnourished?
a. Asking the client about their food preferences
b. Providing the client with high-calorie, high-protein food
c. Offering frequent snacks or protein shakes between meals
d. Obtaining serial weights on a weekly basis to monitor progress
Answer:
a
Regardless of a dietary intervention for malnutrition, if the client does not eat the food provided or recommended, malnutrition will continue. Incorporating the client's food preferences into a planned dietary intervention increases the likelihood of the intervention's success.
Which action does the nurse anticipate in the management of a client who has mild hypercalcemia?
a. Administering IV normal saline
b. Massaging calves to encourage blood return to the heart
c. Providing vitamin D supplementation
d. Monitoring for tetany
Answer:
a
Often the cause of hypercalcemia is dehydration. Increasing fluids, especially IV normal saline, can bring the serum calcium level back to normal. Hypercalcemia promotes excessive clot formation. Calves are not massaged to prevent movement of any existing clot. Vitamin D supplementation would increase calcium absorption and potentially worsen hypercalcemia. Tetany is associated with hypocalcemia.
Which client assessment takes priority when the nurse begins their shift?
a. Client with chronic atrial fibrillation and ventricular rate of 72 bpm
b. Client with sinus tachycardia and occasional premature atrial contractions (PACs)
c. Client with paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia that terminated
d. Client with atrial fibrillation and sustained rapid ventricular response
Answer:
d
The nurse would want to assess all four clients. However, the client with afib RVR is at highest risk for decreased cardiac output and development of symptoms. Therefore this client would need to be assessed first.
Which preventative strategies for skin cancer would the nurse teach to clients and families? Select all that apply.
a. Avoiding sun exposure between 11 am and 3 pm
b. Wearing a hat, opaque clothing, and sunglasses when you are in the sun
c. Using tanning beds no more than 30 minutes twice a week
d. Taking pictures of lesions and comparing them month by month
e. keeping a "body map" of skin spots, scars, and lesions
f. Using sunscreens if sun exposure will be more than an hour
Answer:
a, b, d, e
All options are appropriate except c and f. Tanning beds should be completely avoided, and whenever a client's skin will be exposed to sunlight, a sunscreen should be used.
For which client will the nurse remain most alert for the possibility to develop respiratory alkalosis?
a. Client who is anxious and breathing rapidly
b. Client who has multiple rib fractures
c. Client receiving IV Lactated Ringers
d. Client who has diarrhea (cha cha cha)
Answer:
a.
Clients who hyperventilate can exhale excessive amounts of carbon dioxide which leads to a decreased blood level of free hydrogen ions and acidosis of respiratory origin. A client with multiple rib fractures may have poor gas exchange from shallow breathing because of pain and because the rib fractures may inhibit adequate chest expansion. LR does not cause a respiratory problem. The client with diarrhea is at risk for metabolic acidosis from loss of bicarbonate ions in the stool.
Which activity is most appropriate for a child with ADHD?
a. Reading an adventure novel
b. Monopoly
c. Checkers
d. Tennis
Answer:
d
Tennis is an active sport and does not require long periods of sitting and focusing on a single subject.
What is the priority action the nurse will take for a client admitted with nephrotic syndrome who has proteinuria, hypertension, lipidemia, and facial edema?
a. Monitoring client's fluid volume and hydration status
b. Consulting with registered dietician nutritionist about adequate intake
c. Using clean and sterile techniques to prevent infections
d. Teaching the client about and preparing for a renal biopsy
Answer:
A
the nurse's priority action is to assess the client's fluid volume and hydration status. Assessing the client's hydration status is essential because vascular dehydration is common. If plasma volume is depleted, kidney problems worsen.
The nurse is educating the parents of a child with cerebral palsy for home care. Which of the following disabilities and/or problems are associated with CP?
a. Intelligence testing in the abnormal range
b. Eye cataracts that will need surgical correction
c. Seizures with athetosis and diplegia
d. Coughing and choking while eating
Answer:
D.
Children with CP are at risk for respiratory issues and often have complications with coughing and choking while eating. To prevent this their diet will consist of soft foods and manual jaw control may be needed to help the child swallow.
What is the nurse's best first action when the client with rheumatoid arthritis has one knee that is much more swollen than any other joint, and is both reddened and hot to the touch?
a. Comparing the range of motion for this joint with that of the opposite knee
b. Asking the client whether any recent injury has occurred to this joint
c. Notifying the rheumatology health care provider immediately
d. Elevating the affected knee and applying ice
Answer:
C
The presence of only one hot, swollen, painful joint, is considered infected until proven otherwise. The condition requires immediate assessment and treatment by the rheumatology health care provider to prevent harm from more serious infection and sepsis.
Which complication does the nurse suspect when a client in a starvation state receiving enteral feedings has shallow respirations, weakness, acute confusion, and oozing from the IV site?
a. Sepsis
b. Aspiration
c. Hypoglycemia
d. Refeeding syndrome
Answer:
D
Refeeding syndrome is a life-threatening complication of aggressive enteral feeding in a severely malnourished client that is caused by fluid and electrolyte shifts. This condition can lead to heart failure, muscle breakdown, seizures, and hemolysis. Main electrolyte imbalances are hypokalemia and hypophosphatemia. They hypokalemia causes shallow respiration, as does heart failure. Bleeding around the IV site can be caused by the accompanying hemolysis and poor clotting.
With which client conditions does the nurse remain alert for potential hypocalcemia? Select all that apply.
a. Chron's disease
b. Acute pancreatitis
c. Removal or destruction of parathyroid glands
d. Use of beta-adrenergic inhalers
e. GI wound drainage
Answer:
a, b, c, e
Many conditions lead to an actual or relative hypocalcemia, especially GI conditions that interfere with calcium absorption or increase calcium loss, and anything that impairs parathyroid activity. Immobility causes bone reabsorption of calcium causing a whole body reduction of calcium. Beta adrenergic drugs do not affect calcium metabolism. Pancreatitis is a cause of hypocalcemia
Which questions would the nurse ask a client when a client is admitted reporting chest pain? Select all that apply.
a. "How do you feel about the chest pain?"
b. "How long does the pain last and how often does it occur?"
c. "Where does the pain occur and what does it feel like?"
d. "Have you had other symptoms that occur with the chest pain and what are they?"
e. "What activities were you doing when the pain occurred?"
f. "Is this episode of chest pain different from other episodes you have had?"
Answer:
b, c, d, e, f
If pain is present, ask whether it is different from any other episodes of pain. Ask the client to describe which activities he or she was doing when it first occurred, such as sleeping, arguing, or running. If possible, the client should point to the area where the chest pain occurred and describe if and how the pain radiated. In addition, ask how the pain feels and whether it is sharp, dull, or crushing. To understand severity of the pain, ask the client to grade it from 0 to 10, with 10 indicating severe pain. He or she may also report other signs and symptoms that occur at the same time, such as dyspnea, diaphoresis, nausea, and vomiting. Other factors that need to be addressed are those that may have made the chest pain worse or less intense. Asking how the client feels about the pain should be part of the psychosocial assessment.
What teaching about the affected arm will the nurse provide for a client who had a partial mastectomy (lumpectomy)?
a. Do not start any arm or hand exercises until the drains are removed from the incision.
b. Do push-ups and arm circles on a routine basis for full recovery.
c. Avoid using the affected arm for having blood pressure measured, receiving injections, or having blood drawn for 2 weeks after surgery.
d. Elevate the head of the bed at least 30 degrees, with the affected arm elevated on a pillow while awake.
Answer:
d
The client should have the head of the bed elevated at least 30 degrees, with the affected arm elevated on a pillow while awake. Keeping the affected arm elevated promotes lymphatic fluid return after removal of lymph nodes and channels during the surgery.
Which alteration will the nurse expect in a client who has taken antacids for the past 3 days to relieve "heartburn"?
a. Respiratory acidosis
b. Metabolic acidosis
c. Respiratory alkalosis
d. Metabolic alkalosis
Answer:
d
Antacids buffer the hydrochloric acid in the stomach by adding more base, usually in the form of bicarbonate. Thus, excessive antacid use leads to a base excess metabolic alkalosis.
A client diagnosed with schizophrenia has been prescribed a first-generation antipsychotic medication. What information should the nurse provide to the client regarding their signs and symptoms?
a. Memory problems will likely decrease
b. Depressive episodes should be less severe
c. They will probably enjoy social interactions more
d. They should experience a reduction in hallucinations
Answer:
d
Frist generation antipsychotics are more effective at treating positive symptoms of schizophrenia. FGA are not great at treating memory impairment which is a cognitive symptom, Depression which is a affective symptom, or loss of joy which is a negative symptom.
Which acid-base imbalance does the nurse expect when a client experiences a bowel obstruction high in the small intestine?
a. Respiratory acidosis
b. Respiratory alkalosis
c. Metabolic acidosis
d. Metabolic alkalosis
Answer:
d
An obstruction high in the small intestine causes a loss of gastric hydrochloric acid, which can lead to metabolic alkalosis.
The nurse recognizes which of the following is the goal of therapeutic management for the child with Cerebral palsy?
a. Assisting with motor control of voluntary muscle
b. Maximizing the capabilities of the child
c. Delaying the development of sensory deprivation
d. Surgical correction of deformities
Answer
B.
CP is not a progressive disorder. Maximizing the capabilities of the child is the goal of therapeutic management because this will promote autonomy.
Which nursing assessment findings support a client's diagnosis of multiple sclerosis (MS)? Select all that apply.
a. Intention tremors
b. Dysmetria
c. Dysarthria
d. Nystagmus
e. Respiratory distress
f. Tinnitus
Answer:
a, b, c, d, f
All options except for E are findings that support a diagnosis of MS. Respiratory distress is generally not a symptom of MS.
Which assessment findings in an older adult client indicate to the nurse that this client is at increased risk for developing undernutrition? Select all that apply.
a. Male
b. Jewish ethnicity
c. Reports chronic diarrhea
d. Receiving oxygen after surgery
e. Does not consume pork products
f. Has chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
g. Presence of chronic draining pressure injury
h. Presence of swollen gums and many missing teeth
Answer:
c, f, g, h
The risk for malnutrition is not particularly associated with ethnicity or gender. Conditions that increase nutrient loss, such as chronic wounds and chronic diarrhea contribute to undernutrition risk. Poor dentition interferes with a client's ability to consume adequate nutrients. Health problems that increase energy expenditure, such as COPD, greatly increase caloric need and promote undernutrition. Although pork is an animal protein source, its elimination form the diet does not alone contribute to undernutrition. Receiving oxygen after surgery is common and not an indicator of undernutrition risk.
By which mechanism does parathyroid hormone (PTH) increase serum calcium levels? Select all that apply.
a. Releasing free calcium from the bones
b. Increasing calcium excretion in the urine
c. Stimulating kidney reabsorption of calcium
d. Activating vitamin D
e. Increasing calcium absorption in the GI tract
f. Pulling calcium out of muscle cells
Answer:
a, c, d, e
When more calcium is needed, parathyroid hormone (PTH) is released from the parathyroid glands and increases serum calcium levels by releasing free calcium from bone storage sites, stimulating vitamin D activation to help increase intestinal absorption of dietary calcium, inhibiting kidney calcium excretion, and promoting kidney calcium reabsorption.
Which assessment data would the nurse expect for a client diagnosed with angina? Select all that apply.
a. Pain relieved at rest
b. Sudden onset of pain
c. Intermittent pain relieved by sitting upright
d. Substernal pain that may spread across chest, back and arms
e. Sharp, stabbing pain that is moderate to severe
f. Pain that usually lasts less than 15 minutes
Answer:
a, b, d, f
Angina pain is usually sudden in onset, in response to exertion, emotion, or extremes in temperature. It is usually located on the left side of the chest without radiation but can be substernal and may spread across the chest and the back and/or down the arms. It usually lasts less than 15 minutes and is relieved with rest, nitrate administration, or oxygen therapy.
Which possible risk factors will the nurse assess for in a client who is newly diagnosed with non-Hodgkin lymphoma (NHL)? Select all that apply.
a. History of immunosuppressive disorder
b. Chronic infection with Helicobactor pylori
c. Previous infection with Epstein-Barr virus
d. Exposure to pesticides and insecticides
e. Smoking cigars or cigarettes
f. Chronic alcoholism
Answer:
a, b, c, d
Possible causes of NHL include viral infections and exposure to chemicals, especially pesticides and insecticides. Chronic infection from Helicobacter pylori is associated with a type of NHL called mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue (MALT) lymphoma. Although chronic alcoholism and cigarette smoking are both associated with an increased risk for some types of cancer, this is not true for lymphoma.
Which signs and symptoms would the nurse expect to find in a client with severe compensating metabolic acidosis? Select all that apply.
a. Kussmaul respirations
b. Increased urine output
c. Warm, flushed skin
d. Skin pale to cyanotic
e. High PaCO2 level
f. Low HCO3 level
Answer:
a, c, e, f
Regardless of the cause of a severe metabolic acidosis, the greatly increased hydrogen ion concentration results in high CO2 levels (through the carbonic anhydrase reaction) that trigger the central nervous system to increase the rate and depth of breathing (Kussmaul respirations). These deep and rapid breaths help "blow off" the excessive CO2 and bring down the hydrogen ion level. The high CO2 level causes widespread vasodilation which results in warm, flushed dry skin. Blood pressure is low, which decreases urine output. Bicarbonate is decreased either as a cause of the acidosis or because it is binding to hydrogen ions forming carbonic acid to help buffer the low pH.
Which characteristic presents the greatest risk for injury to others by the client with schizophrenia?
a. Depersonalization
b. Pressured speech
c. Negative symptoms
d. Paranoia
Answer:
d
Paranoia is an irrational fear ranging from mild (wary/guarded) to profound (irrational fear that someone is trying to kill you). This fear can result in defensive actions that could harm others before they "harm" the patient.
Which nursing and collaborative actions are implemented by the nurse when caring for a client with nephrotic syndrome? Select all that apply.
a. Administration of mild diuretics
b. Fluid restrictions
c. Frequent assessment of hydration status
d. Administration of angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors
e. Collection of urine sample for culture
f. Assessment for periorbital edema
Answer:
a, c, d, f
Angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors can decrease protein loss in the urine and lower blood pressure for clients with NS. Mild diuretics and sodium restriction may be needed to control edema (facial and periorbital) and hypertension. The nurse assess the client's hydration status because vascular dehydration is common.
Which does the nurse recognize as cardinal symptoms for a client with Parkinson's disease (PD)? Select all that apply.
a. Tremors
b. Muscle rigidity
c. Postural instability
d. Bradykinesia or akinesia
e. Choreiform movements
f. Seizure activity
Answer:
A, B, C, D.
Parkinson's Disease is a progressive neurodegenerative disease that is one of the most common neurologic disorders of older adults. It is a debilitating disease affecting mobility and is characterized by four cardinal symptoms: tremor, muscle rigidity, bradykinesia or akinesia, and postural instability.
Which precautions are most important for the nurse to teach a client newly diagnosed with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) to prevent harm? Select all that apply.
a. Avoid direct sunlight
b. Monitoring urine output
c. Keeping open lesions clean and covered
d. Avoiding the use of make-up
e. Wearing a medical alert bracelet
f. Avoiding any form of aerobic exercise
g. Being immunized yearly against influenza
h. Avoiding the use of hair dyes and having permanents
Answer:
a, b, e, g
The UV light exposure exacerbates all aspects of SLE an must be avoided. A common cause of death for clients with SLE is chronic kidney disease, which can be managed if identified earlier. Monitoring urine output and urine characteristics helps identify kidney changes. Wearing a medical alert bracelet or other disease identifying objects is important in case the client is unable to communicate his or her disorder and therapies. Management of SLE reduces the immune response and increases the risk for infection. Obtaining an annual influenza vaccination reduces the risk for this contagious disease. Open lesions do not have to be covered. Make-up is not contraindicated and neither is the use of hair dyes or other hair products. Clients are urged to continue low-impact aerobic exercise to prevent complications.
Which actions will the nurse take to prevent harm when caring for a client receiving continuous enteral tube feeding? Select all that apply.
a. Checking the residual volume at least every 6 hours
b. Changing the feeding bag and tubing every 12 hours
c. Keeping the head of the bed elevated at least 30 degrees
d. Using clean technique when changing the feeding system
e. Discarding unused open enteral products after 24 hours
f. Warming the enteral products before infusion
Answer:
a, c, d, e
Residual volume must be assessed at least every 6 hours to prevent reflux and aspiration, as well as other complications. Keeping the head of the bed elevated to at least 30 degrees also helps prevent reflux and aspiration. Clean technique is required to prevent GI infection, as is discarding any unused enteral products that have been open for 24 hours. The feeding bag and tubing are changed every 24 hours to 48 hours as needed an in accordance with agency policy. Warming of the enteral product is not required or recommended.
The electrolyte magnesium is responsible for which functions? Select all that apply.
a. Formation of hydrochloric acid
b. Carbohydrate metabolism
c. Contraction of skeletal muscle
d. Regulation of intracellular osmolarity
e. Vitamin activation
f. Blood coagulation
Answer:
b, c, e, f
Magnesium is important for skeletal muscle contraction, carbohydrate metabolism, generation of energy stores, vitamin activation, blood coagulation, and cell growth. Adequate amounts of intracellular magnesium are particularly essential for the health and maintenance of cardiac muscle.
Which triad of symptoms would the nurse assess for in a woman at risk for cardiovascular disease? Select all that apply.
a. Severe chest pain
b. Feeling of abdominal fullness
c. Chronic fatigue despite adequate rest
d. Extremity pain
e. Dyspnea or inability to catch her breath
f. Intermittent claudication
Answer:
b, c, e
Some clients, especially women, do not experience pain in the chest but, instead, feel discomfort or indigestion. Women often present with a "triad" of symptoms. In addition to indigestion or a feeling of abdominal fullness (not pain), chronic fatigue despite adequate rest and feeling of an "inability to catch my breath" (dyspnea) are also common in heart disease.
Which signs and symptoms will the nurse expect on assessment of a client newly diagnosed with acute leukemia before initiation of treatment? Select all that apply.
a. Finger clubbing
b. Excessive bruising
c. Bone pain
d. Dyspnea on exertion
e. Fatigue
f. Facial flushing
Answer:
b, c, d, e
In acute leukemia, immature white blood cells (WBCs) are overproduced and other blood cell types are low. The rapid production of WBCs in the marrow contributes to bone pain. Low platelet counts cause bleeding and excessive bruising. Low red blood cell counts reduce gas exchange leading to fatigue and dyspnea on exertion.
Finger clubbing is not present because it requires hypoxemia of long duration. Facial pallor not flushing would be present.
Which acid-base and electrolyte changes would the nurse monitor for in a client who has had diarrhea for the past 2 days? Select all that apply.
a. Over elimination of bicarbonate
b. Respiratory alkalosis
c. Metabolic acidosis
d. Under elimination of hydrogen ions
e. Over production of hydrogen ions
f. Hyperkalemia
g. Hyponatremia
Answer:
a, c, f
Bicarbonate is a base that is lost with excessive diarrhea leading to a base deficit metabolic acidosis. In addition, bicarbonate that is produced may not get into body fluids if the diarrhea was severe enough to cause dehydration. The acidosis would cause hydrogen ions to move into the cells in exchange for potassium moving from the cells into the extracellular fluid to maintain electroneutrality, resulting in hyperkalemia.
To provide effective care for the patient diagnosed with schizophrenia, the nurse should frequently assess for which associated condition? Select all that apply.
a. Alcohol use disorder
b. Major depressive disorder
c. Stomach cancer
d. Polydipsia
e. Metabolic syndrome
Answer:
a, b, d, e
Polydipsia due to its occurrence in 20% of individuals with schizophrenia. Second generation antipsychotics have a tendency tp cause weight gain which puts patients as risk for Metabolic Syndrome. Substance use disorders (alcohol) occur in nearly half of Schizophrenic patients. Anxiety/depression/suicide occur frequently in schizophrenia.
When the nurse is teaching a client about bowel obstructions, which conditions will be described as mechanical bowel obstructions? Select all that apply.
a. Adhesions
b. Paralytic ileus
c. Tumors
d. Functional obstruction
e. Chron's disease
f. Absent peristalsis
Answer:
a, c, e
When the nurse describes mechanical bowel obstructions, they include conditions where the bowel is physically blocked by problems outside the intestine; adhesions, in the bowel wall: Chron's disease, or in the intestinal lumen; tumors.