Integumentary/
Surgical
Surgical
Musculoskeletal
Respiratory
Cardiovascular
Endocrine
Hemat/Immune
Sensory
Blood Transfusions/Products
100
Diet encouraged for patients post-operatively to help prevent constipation.
What is a high fiber diet
100
Bone loss due to the softening of bone tissue
What is osteoporosis
100
It is important to assess this in a client, post bronchoscopy, to prevent aspiration when eating.
What is the gag reflex
100
This is the first intervention to be performed for a client exhibiting a myocardial infarction.
What is apply oxygen
100
Clients with hypothyroidism have an intolerance to this and may require warm clothing or blankets
What is cold intolerance
100
Lab value with has an expected reference range of 5,000-10,000.
What is white blood cells (WBC's)
100
Measures the intraocular pressure of the eye, in a client with glaucoma.
What is Tonometry
100
This nursing intervention is the priority action should the nurse discover any complication or reaction with a blood product or blood transfusion.
What is stop the infusion
200
DOUBLE POINTS
2 types of diagnostic procedure that help to determine the best course of antibiotic treatment for an infected wound.
What is a wound culture and blood culture.
200
Clients use this type of device post-operatively to prevent hip dislocation after a hip arthroplasty
what is a foam wedge or abductor pillow
200
This is a priority assessment prior to the administration of morphine.
What is a client's respiratory rate
200
Expected findings expected in a client with right-sided heart failure?
What is:
peripheral edema
high blood pressure
JVD
200
When low levels of the hormone vasopressin or ADH is produced it can cause this disorder to occur.
What is Diabetes Insipidus
200
When a patient has few neutrophils due to an autoimmune disease, infection, or radiation therapy
What is neutropenia
200
An opacity in the lens of an eye that impairs vision, causing blurred vision or impaired color vision.
What is cataracts
200
generalized urticaria or itching, bronchospasms, laryngeal edema, or hypotension
What is an anaphylactic transfusion reaction
300
This is known as the leading cause of non-melanoma skin cancer.
What is sun exposure
300
This type of bone fracture involves fragments of bone or splintered bone into several pieces.
What is a comminuted bone fracture
300
Expiratory wheezes are the most common lung sound noted in a patient with this acute, respiratory exacerbation.
What is asthma
300
Frothy sputum or Hemoptysis is an expected finding in this type of cardiac complication.
What is left-sided heartfailure.
300
Clients with a fruity odor to their breath and/or urine are most likely exhibiting this endocrine disorder.
What is Diabetic Ketoacidosis.
300
This antedote is given to clients with an elevated PT/INR to prevent hemorrhage or bleeding
What is Vitamin K
300
This conductive hearing loss test requires the provider to place a tuning fork on the mastoid bone of the client's head.
What is the Rinne test
300
A blood transfusion reaction that is mild or life-threatening. The manifestations usually occur immediately after the transfusion or within the first 15 minutes. This can occur due to the transfusion of blood products incompatible with the client's blood type or Rh factor. Common assessment findings are chills and lower back pain.
What is an acute hemolytic transfusion reaction.
400
The priority risk or complication for clients with partial-thickness to full-thickness burns of the head and chest.
What is airway obstruction
400
TRIPLE POINTS!
Client's with gout or a history of gout are educated to avoid these kinds of foods. (name 3 to triple point value)
What is shellfish or foods high in purines
- sardines -mackerel
- salmon - anchovies
- alcohol - organ meats
400
This type of breathing technique is useful for clients with emphysema and COPD, because it increases the pressure in the airway with exhalation and lengthens the expiratory phase of respiration, decreasing trapped air in their lungs.
What is pursed-lip breathing
400
This electrolyte can cause arrhythmias if abnormal, less than 3.5 mEq/L or greater than 5 mEq/L.
What is potassium
400
Clients with Syndrome of Inappropriate Antidiuretic Hormone (SIADH) and a sodium level of 120 mEq/L, should do this with their fluid intake.
What is restrict
ideally 800-1,000 mL/day due to excess fluid volume diluting sodium levels.
400
This lab has an expected reference range of 150,000 to 400,000 mm³
What are platelets
400
Vision impairment that affects the patient's peripheral vision, causing a gradual loss in vision, potentially blindness.
What is open-angle glaucoma
400
A transfusion reaction that commonly occurs within 2 hours of starting the transfusion and findings include chills with a body temperature increase of 1° F or greater.
What is a febrile transfusion reaction
500
What is 31.5%
Left arm = 9%
½ of right arm = 4.5%
Front torso = 18%
500
Patients with osteoporosis who take this oral medication should sit upright for at least 30 minutes post-administration to prevent esophagitis.
What is Alendronate
500
This white coating of the mouth develops most commonly in clients who are taking a steroid inhaler/breathing treatment.
What is thrush, or candidiasis.
500
TRIPLE POINTS!!!
These 3 interventions are important for the post cardiac catheterization client.
check distal pulses in both legs
remain flat with used extremity straight for 4-6 hours, as tolerated
leave dressing in place for 24 hours
500
When the thyroid stimulating hormone is below normal levels (0.5 to 5.0 mIU/L)
What is Grave's disease or hyperthyroidism.
500
This antedote is given for patients with an elevated PTT to reverse the effects of heparin.
What is protamine sulfate
500
TRIPLE POINTS!
3 priority interventions or education provided for patients post glaucoma surgery
What is adhering to medications, avoiding activities that increase IOP, do not lie on the operative side.
500
A transfusion reaction that can occur during the transfusion or within 24 hours after the transfusion, as a result of a sensitivity to the components of the transfused blood product.
What is an allergic transfusion reaction.
600
Name this drain
What is a hemovac
600
These pinpoint, unraised, round red spots under the skin caused by bleeding can develop from fat embolism syndrome as a result of a bone fracture.
What is petechiae
600
This ABG disorder involves a client with a RR of 7/min, pH of 7.26, PaCO2 of 65 mm Hg and HCO3 of 28 mEq/L, and Oxygen saturation of 80%.
What is respiratory acidosis
600
This is the normal lab value for Troponin T.
What is 0-0.04 ng/mL
600
Due to adrenal insufficiency, not being able to increase the amount of cortisol made as a result of stress can lead to this endocrine disorder.
What is Addison's disease
600
This type of cancer can lower platelet counts below 150,000/mm3 , increasing the client's risk of hemorrhage.
What is Leukemia
600
A type of antihistamine and anticholinergic that helps to treat vertigo related to inner ear complications.
What is meclizine
600
DOUBLE POINTS!
The blood type that is the most needed for blood banks when donating blood because it is termed the universal donor.
What is O negative
700
Mr. Jones presents to the hospital with an infected wound to the right lower leg, caused by a diabetic ulcer. The lab results of his wound culture show he has developed MRSA of the wound. He has been hospitalized for 3 days. He is started on IV antibiotics, day 1. He begins to complain of hearing loss and the nurse notices he has had a significant decrease in urinary output throughout her shift, despite being on 0.9% normal saline at 75 mL/hr and drinking sufficient oral fluids. The nurse looks at the clients labs and sees that a blood draw for a trough is due 30 minutes prior to his next infusion, which is in 2 hours. The nurse suspects toxicity of this antibiotic.
What is Vancomycin