Renal
MSK
Endocrine
Neuro
CVS
100

Identify the main causes of glomerulonephritis

IgA nepropathy, Post-infection (especially streptococcal infection), Vasculitis, Anti-GBM syndrome, SLE

100

Outline the 4 types of hypersensitivity reactions, and provide an example of each

T1 = Immediate IgE mediated (e.g. anaphylaxis, atopy - eczema, allergic rhinitis, asthma)

T2 = Antibody mediated cytotoxicity (IgG/IgM) (e.g. ARF, anti-GBM syndrome, T1DM). 

T3 = Immune complex mediated (IgG/IgM) (e.g. SLE, RA)

T4 = T cell mediated (e.g. TB, contact hypersensitivity - Nickel).

100

Outline the visual pathway

Retina (rods & cones) -> Optic Nerve -> Optic Chiasm -> Optic Tract -> Lateral Geniculate Nucleus -> Optic radiation ->Occipital lobe

100
Identify the 3 early signs of Parkinson's

Anosmia

Constipation

Sleep disturbance

100

What are the lateral chest and limb leads on an ECG?

Limb - I, avL

Chest - V5, V6

200

Identify the main features of Nephrotic vs Nephritic Syndrome

Nephrotic = Proteinuria, Frothy Urine, Oedema (periorbital),  Hyperlipidemia, Hypoalbuminaemia 

Nephritic = Hematuria (RBC casts), Hypertension, Oliguria, some proteinura

200

What is the difference between gout and pseudogout?

Gout = buildup of uric acid 

Pseudogout = buildup of calcium pyrophosphate and calcium phosphate (hydroxyapatite)

200

Identify the layers of the adrenal cortex, and the hormone each layer produces

Zona Glomerulosa - Aldosterone

Zona Fasciculata - Cortisol

Zona Reticularis - Androgens

200

What are the 3 types of Multiple Sclerosis?

Relapsing Remitting

Primary Progressive

Secondary Progressive

200

Provide 2 examples of narrow QRS tachycardias and wide QRS tachycardias

Narrow QRS - Atrial flutter, Afib, Sinus tachy, AV-Nodal Re-entry tachycardia (AVNRT), AV Re-entry Tachycardia (AVRT)

Wide QRS - Ventricular Tachycardia, Wolff-Parkinson White SVT

300

What is the life threatening side effect that can occur from Metformin?

Lactic acidosis

300

Which HLA group is strongly associated with spondyloarthropathies?

HLA-B27

300

Identify the antibodies used to diagnose Grave's Disease and Hashimoto's

Graves - TRAb

Hashimoto's - TgAb, TPOAb

300

Identify the most common Gram Positive and Gram Negative organisms causing bacterial Meningitis?

GRAM POS: Strep pneumoniae

GRAM NEG: Neisseria meningitidis

300
Outline the diagnostic criteria for Rheumatic Fever

Jones Criteria: 2 major OR 1 major + 1 minor

MAJOR = carditis, arthritis, Syndenham's chorea, erythema marginatum, subcutaneous nodules

MINOR = Fever, raised ESR/CRP, arthralgia, Prolonged PR


400

Identify at least 2 pre-renal, intrarenal and post-renal causes of an Acute Kidney Injury

Pre-Renal: Shock, Hypotension, Renal Artery Stenosis, Renal Artery Dissection, Renal Vein Thrombosis, Hepato-renal Syndrome

Intra-Renal: GN, Vasculitis, Acute Tubular Necrosis, Immune Conditions (SLE), anti-GBM syndrome

Post-Renal: Stones, Strictures, Neoplasms, Clots

400

Outline the pathophysiology of Paget's disease

high rate of bone remodeling: ↑ RANKL-RANK activity → ↑ NF-κB signaling → ↑ osteoclast activity → ↑ osteoblast activity → formation of disorganized (woven) bone

400

Which type of thyroiditis classically presents with a tender thyroid?

Subacute granulomatous thyroiditis (de Quervain thyroiditis)

400

Identify the four Parkinson Plus syndromes

  • Lewy body dementia
  • Supranuclear palsy
  • Corticobasal degeneration
  • Multi-system atrophy
400

Identify the early, middle and late complications of an AMI

Early - Arrythmias, Cardiogenic Shock

Middle - Ventricular septal rupture, Papillary Muscle rupture

Late - LV aneurysm, Pericarditis (Dressler’s Syndrome)

500

Name the 5 main types of renal carcinomas

1. Clear Cell Carcinoma

2. Papillary (chromophilic) RCC

3. Chromophobe RCC

4. Oncocytic RCC

5. Collecting duct carcinoma

500

Outline the 4 main categories under the ACR/EULAR criteria for Rheumatoid Arthritis. What score is required for a RA diagnosis under this criteria?

1. Joint involvement

2. Serology

3. Acute phase reactants

4. Duration of Symptoms

Score of 6+ required for RA diagnosis

500

Identify the 3-4 conditions that make up each of the following:

MEN I

MEN IIA

MEN IIB

MEN I  - Pituitary adenoma, parathyroid hyperplasia, pancreatic tumours

MEN IIA - parathyroid hyperplasia, medullary thyroid carcinoma, pheochromocytoma

MEN IIB  - Mucosal neuromas, Marfanoid's body habitus, Medullary thyroid carcinoma, pheochromocytoma

500

Explain the mechanism of action of Triptans (e.g. Sumatriptan)

  • Act on 5HT(B) receptors --> vasoconstriction of cranial arteries (which dilate during migraine and cause throbbing)
  • Act on 5HT(D) receptors --> Inhibitory effect on trigeminal nerve, prevents released of CRGP (vasoactive neuropeptide), to block pain signals
500

Outline the mechanism of action of a Nitrate, used to treat angina

1. cause venous dilation which reduces venous return and preload, and reduces cardiac work and oxygen demand

2. cause artery/arteriolar dilation which reduces peripheral resistance and afterload, and reduces cardiac work and oxygen demand

3. dilate coronary vessels and increase coronary blood flow, particularly to ischaemic areas, which increases myocardial oxygen supply

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