how
many
are
you
poppin???
100

used for its immune-modulating effects

what is rituximaub

100

halts the production of unnecessary antibodies and decreases dz activity; live vaccines contraindicated for 30 days prior

what is belimumab

100

used topically for cutaneous manifestations

what is corticosteroids

100

low oral doses vs high doses

what is minor dz activity vs major dz activity

100

patient education for corticosteroids

what is taken w food, get yearly flu vaccine, and do not abruptly stop or life-threatening complications may occur

200
GI symptoms

hepatoxicity - elevated LFTs

increased risk of retinal toxicity or retinopathy



what is hydroxychloroquine 

200

often used in conjunction w corticos - minimize corticosteroid requirements 

what is NSAIDs

200

reserved for pts who have serious forms of SLE that haven't responded to conservative therapies; examples; safety considerations

what is immunosuppressive agents; cyclophosphamide, azathioprine, mycophenolic acid, and methotrexate; contraindicated in pregnancy and most used in SLE nephritis

200

A patient has been prescribed long-term corticosteroid use. The nurse educates the patient that they will need bone mineral density tests performed when?

what is at diagnosis and prior to beginning steroid use and then q2years thereafter

200

A nurse understands that a patient with lupus needs to be receiving supplements. Which two should the nurse recommend to the patient?

what is calcium and vitamin D

300

biologic response modifiers function and examples

what is stimulates the growth of WBCs; Neulasta, pegfilgrastim, filgrastim

300

the immune suppressants _____________, ___________, and __________ are usually needed in higher doses for children

what is azathioprine, cyclosporine, and tacrolimus

300
A patient is receiving immunosuppressive therapy in order to prevent transplant rejection. The nurse educates a new nurse on the floor to monitor this client for bleeding. What is the reasoning behind this education?

what is immunosuppressive therapy medications suppresses platelet formation

300

A nurse is educating a patient on the use of immunosuppressive therapy medications for the prevention of transplant rejection. Which of the following risks are associated with these medications? SATA.

a. nephrotoxicity

b. hypotension

c. hyperlipidemia

d. hirsutism

e. cataracts

f. gingival hyperplasia

what is A, C, D, E, F

300

A patient has just been brought into the ER after an apparent alcohol overdose. The nurse plans to begin the process of safe withdrawal. Which medication(s), if any 🤪, would the nurse plan to administer to this client? SATA.

a. lorazepam

b. tacrolimus

c. disulfiram

d. chlordiazepoxide

e. diazepam

f. cyanocobalamin


what is A, D, E

400

antipsychotic, controls hallucinations, lowers BP, and relieves nausea 

what is chlorpromazine

400

given every few hours until opioid level drops to nontoxic

whats is naloxone

400

cyanocobalamin

what is B12

400

phencyclidine overdose medications purpose

what is control BP and seizures

400

disulfiram client education

what is read labels to avoid products with alcohol

500

levomethadyl patient education

what is do not take on consecutive days; take-home doses are not permitted; maintains abstinence from opioids
500

buprenorphine/naloxone

what is may cause OH, sedation; avoid CNS depressants; maintains abstinence from opioids and ↓  opiate cravings

500

naltrexone

what is may not respond to narcotics used to tx cough, diarrhea, or pain; take w food or milk; may cause headache, restlessness, and irritability; blocks effects of opiates; decreases alcohol cravings

500

acamprosate: monitor for?

what is diarrhea, vomiting, flatulence, and pruritis; suppresses alcohol cravings

500

urine may be dark yellow

what is folic acid

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