Labs
Pathophysiology
Cancers
Genetics
Infectious Disease
100
What lab findings can you use to help guide your differential on the different types of renal failure?
What are BUN/Creatinine ratios, UOSm, FENa+, Urinalysis
100
The most likely location for an esophageal squamous cell carcinoma.
What is mid-esophagus
100
Von Hippel-Lindau disease (VHL) is an autosomal dominant disease related to this type of carcinoma.
What is renal cell carcinoma. VHL shows bilateral renal cell carcinoma (50-60%).
100
This mutation is affiliated with increased risk of colorectal and endometrial cancers and is inherited in what manner?
What is Lynch Syndrome (Hereditary nonpolyposis Colorectal Cancer. HNPCC). Autosomal dominant.
100
Name this first line oral medication with its mechanism of action that can be used to treat a patient with severe diarrhea who has been taking on multiple oral antibiotics for the past 2 months.
What is metronidazole. It forms ROS inside the bacteria/protozoa.
200
Two conditions that results in an elevated PSA.
What is nodular hyperplasia, prostatic carcinoma, BPH, or prostatitis.
200
The most common cause of small bowel obstruction in (1) adults and in (2) children.
What is (1) adhesions and (2) intussusception. Other causes include vasculitis, atherosclerosis, mechanical obstruction, volvulus and cardiac embolisms.
200
The most common malignant neoplasm found in the parotid glands.
What is mucoepidermoid carcinoma?
200
Mutations in this gene are linked to Crohn's disease.
What is NOD2 gene. Loss of function of NOD2 (intracellular soluble toll-like receptor) leads to chronic gut inflammation and noncaseating granulomas found in Crohn's disease.
200
The two most common causes of vaginitis.
What is Gardnerella vaginalis and Candida albicans.
300
A hepatitis panel is ordered for a 27-year-old woman as part of a routine work-up for abdominal pain. Results of serologic testing are negative for HBeAg and HBsAg, but positive for HBsAb and IgG HBcAb. What is the appropriate conclusion about her viral status?
What is complete recoveryfrom Hep B.
300
A 24-year-old woman takes an overdose of acetominophen. Liver enzyme studies show a serum alanine aminotransferase of 4800 mm3. The site of liver damage is in one of the following: (A) Bile ducts in portal triads (B) Hepatic artery tributaries in portal triad (C) Hepatocytes around central vein (D) Hepatocytes around portal triad (E) Portal vein tributaries in portal triad
What is hepatocytes around the central vein (C).
300
Distinguish a key risk factor in determining whether a hCG producing tumor that will be responsive to chemo or not.
What is prior molar pregnancy (50%) or other pregnancy.
300
This gene is involved in Li-Fraumeni syndrome
What is p53 Li-Fraumeni syndrome is an autosomal dominant condition that leads to many different kinds of cancer. SLABB (Sarcoma, lymphoma/leukemia, adrenocortical carcinoma, breast cancer/brain tumor).
300
This diarrhea-inducing pathogen is a common antecedent to Guillain-Barre syndrome.
What is Campylobacter jejuni, a cause of bloody diarrhea.
400
Name the disease for the following antibodies: Anti-endomysial Anti smooth muscle Anticentromere Antimitochondrial
What is celiac disease, autoimmune hepatitis, Scleroderma (CREST) -diffuse is AntiSCL070 or Anti topoisomerase I, Primary Biliary Cirrhosis
400
Placenta abruptio 1. Mechanism 2. Complication 3. Risk Factors (major)
The placenta's basal plate peels off the endometrium prematurely. It can be complicated by DIC. Major risk factors include hypertension, smoking, cocaine use, and maternal age.
400
Cancer associated with amyloidosis producing nephrotic syndrome
What is multiple myeloma Also seen: Urine BJ protein, M-spike in serum, osteolytic lesions (Esp vertebrae), hypercalcemia, nephrocalcinosis, normocytic anemia.
400
A patient arrives at your office for a new visit. You notice a very slight scleral icterus, and blood work reveals abnormal LFTs and a high aFP level. Patient has a positive family history for "cancer" and describes a parent with "trouble breathing". You advise the patient to quit smoking so as to delay the necessity for injection therapy. What condition does this patient have?
What is alpha-1-antitrypsin deficiency
400
PAS+ foamy macrophages in the GI epithelium
What is Whipple's disease.
500
On a routine physical examination, a previously healthy 26-year-old woman has a blood pressure of 150/85 mm Hg. She has had no other physical symptoms. She begins following a diet and exercise program, but on her next visit, her blood pressure is 170/95 mm Hg. A blood test demonstrates elevated plasma renin. What would explain her condition?
What is fibrovascular dysplasia (inherent cogenital defect in the renal artery wall that leads to decreased perfusion of the kidney (s).
500
Name one way to differentiate between adenomyosis and leiomyosarcoma.
What is (1) Solid mass (leiomyosarcoma) versus diffuse uterine enlargement (adenomyosis) (2) Cigar-shaped nuclei, nuclear atypia (leiomyosarcoma) versus glands and stroma invading myometrium (adenomyosis)
500
Benign tumor associated with Meig's syndrome
What is thecoma-fibroma. Meigs syndrome is (ascites, right sided pleural effusion and commonly calcify. Regression of effusions follows removal of tumor)
500
A baby dies from respiratory distress within an hour of birth. At autopsy, the kidneys are markedly enlarged bilaterally. Microscopically, the renal parenchyma is replaced by numerous small radially arranged cysts. What is seen in association with this pathologic condition (outside of the kidney)?
What is hepatic cysts and hepatic fibrosis
500
Weil's disease is a severe form of a disease caused by this pathogen that presents as jaundice, azotemia, fever, hemorrhage, and anemia
What is leptospira interrogans It is question mark bacteria cound in water contaminated with animal urine. Usual symptoms: flu, jaundice, photophobia with conjunctivitis. Seen in surfers and tropics.
M
e
n
u