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A 28-year-old at 34 weeks presents with painless vaginal bleeding. Most likely diagnosis?
Placenta praevia.
Most common cause of postmenopausal bleeding?
Endometrial atrophy.
Immediate management priority in anaphylaxis?
IM adrenaline (0.5 mg 1:1000).
Core symptoms required for diagnosis of major depressive disorder?
Low mood and/or anhedonia (plus biological/cognitive symptoms).
First-line treatment for newly diagnosed hypertension under age 55?
ACE inhibitor (or ARB).
The first-line management for eclampsia?
IV magnesium sulfate.
First-line investigation for suspected ovarian torsion?
Transvaginal ultrasound with Doppler.
First investigation in suspected subarachnoid haemorrhage?
Non-contrast CT head.
First-line treatment for moderate OCD?
CBT with exposure and response prevention ± SSRI.
Most appropriate initial test for suspected coeliac disease?
Tissue transglutaminase IgA (tTG-IgA).
A woman collapses post-delivery with hypotension and a boggy uterus. Most likely cause?
Uterine atony causing postpartum haemorrhage.
First-line management of heavy menstrual bleeding in a stable woman with no structural pathology?
Levonorgestrel intrauterine system (e.g. Mirena).
Management of tension pneumothorax?
Immediate needle decompression followed by chest drain.
A patient presents with decreased need for sleep, grandiosity and pressured speech for 8 days. Diagnosis?
Mania
Red flag symptom in back pain requiring urgent imaging?
Cauda equina symptoms (e.g. urinary retention, saddle anaesthesia).
Definitive management of shoulder dystocia after McRoberts manoeuvre fails?
Internal rotational manoeuvres (e.g. Rubin II or Wood’s screw).
Most common cause of secondary dysmenorrhoea?
Endometriosis.
Reversal agent for life-threatening DOAC-associated bleeding (e.g. apixaban)?
Andexanet alfa (if available) or prothrombin complex concentrate.
First-line management of acute behavioural disturbance in hospital?
Verbal de-escalation, then oral lorazepam or antipsychotic if required.
First-line management of polymyalgia rheumatica?
Oral prednisolone.
A postpartum woman develops acute dyspnoea, hypotension and DIC shortly after delivery. Most likely diagnosis?
Amniotic fluid embolism
Management of high-grade cervical intraepithelial neoplasia (CIN3)?
Large loop excision of the transformation zone (LLETZ).
A trauma patient has hypotension, distended neck veins and clear lungs. Most likely diagnosis?
Cardiac tamponade.
A detained patient under the Mental Health Act 1983 can be held initially under which emergency GP section?
Section 136 (if police) or Section 5(2) (doctor’s holding power in hospital).
(GP-initiated admission in community → Section 2 or 3 with AMHP involvement.)
A 62-year-old smoker presents with painless haematuria. Most important diagnosis to exclude?
Bladder cancer (urgent 2-week wait referral).