Serology
The Clinical Laboratory Improvement Act categorized each laboratory procedure as being one of the following EXCEPT:
A. High complexity
B. Middle complexity
C. Waived complexity
D. Moderate complexity
B. Middle complexity
Testing for alcohol will most likely use what sample type?
A. Breath
B. Urine
C. Blood
D. Hair
A. Breath
Which of the following statements regarding a chain of custody is FALSE?
A. A specimen must be handled using special procedures
B. A chain of custody should maximize the number of people handling the specimen
C. Every person that handles the specimen must sign the same form
D. Specimens must be placed in a locked container before transportation
B. A chain of custody should maximize the number of people handling the specimen
Most waived hematology tests use blood from:
A. An artery
B. A vein
C. A capillary
D. An evacuated tube
C. A capillary
The highest percentage of tests performed fall under what level of complexity?
A. High
B. Middle
C. Moderate
D. Low
C. Moderate
Special handling procedures are in place for drug testing in order to:
A. Prevent tampering
B. Promote misidentification
C. Interfere with results
D. All of the above
A. Prevent tampering
What is an example of an invasive collection for drug testing?
A. Urine
B. Blood
C. Breath
D. All of the above
B. Blood
What would be the best method of collection for drug testing for suspected use within the last 2 weeks?
A. Hair
B. Breath
C. Urine
D. Blood
D. Blood
Differential media includes culture plates with what characteristic?
A. Color indicator through the use of a dye
B. Growth inhibitor through the use of antibiotics
C. Growth enhancement through specially formulated nutrients
D. None of the above
A. Color indicator through the use of a dye
Using germicides to destroy microorganisms but not their spores is an example of:
A. Cleaning
B. Sanitization
C. Disinfection
D. Sterilization
C. Disinfection
Which of the following is the best example of a supportive media?
A. Eosin Methylene Blue (EMB)
B. Trypicase Soy Broth
C. Hektoen
D. Chocolate
B. Trypicase Soy Broth
What is the term used to refer to round shaped bacterium that is arranged in chains?
A. Diplococci
B. Staphylococci
C. Streptococci
D. Cocci
C. Streptococci
Which of the following is a gram negative bacterium known to cause food poisoning?
A. Klebsiella
B. Hemophilus
C. Candida
Which of the following is a gram negative bacterium known to cause food poisoning?
A. Klebsiella
B. Hemophilus
C. Candida
D. Salmonella
D. Salmonella
Nosocomial infections are always a concern in any medical facility; the best way to prevent these kinds of infections is hand washing which is an example of what kind of aseptic method?
A. Sterilization
B. Sanitation
C. Disinfection
D. Autoclaving
B. Sanitation
Which of the following would be specifically used to grow neisseria?
A. Mac Conkey agar
B. Chocolate agar
C. Sheeps blood agar
D. Trypicase Soy broth
B. Chocolate agar
What is the hormone tested in order to determine a possible pregnancy?
A. FSH
B. HCG
C. LH
D. Estrogen
B. HCG
Which of the following is a diagnostic test for syphilis?
A. VDRL
B. RPR
C. FTA-ABS
D. All of the above
C. FTA-ABS
Which of the following is best described as a chronic inflammatory degenerative disease?
A. Rheumatic fever
B. Malaria
C. Infectious mononucleosis
D. Rheumatoid arthritis
D. Rheumatoid arthritis
What stage of syphilis involves the CNS and a CSF sample will test positive?
A. Primary stage of syphilis
B. Secondary stage of syphilis
C. Latent stage of syphilis
D. Late stage of syphilis
D. Late stage of syphilis
During RA slide testing, what component is added to each square of the testing plate?
A. Patients blood
B. Positive control
C. Negative control
D. Reagent
D. Reagent
Which of the following is the recommended specimen for urine pregnancy testing?
A. First morning
B. Post prandial
C. Fasting
D. 24 hour urine
A. First morning
. Penicillin is commonly used as a treatment for?
A. Mononucleosis
B. Pregnancy
C. Rheumatoid arthritis
D. Strep throat
D. Strep throat
A urine sample for pregnancy testing should have which of the following qualities;
A. Mixed well
B. specific gravity less than 1.013
C. Collected with a clean catch
D. All of the above
A. Mixed well
level is too high this may lea If a patients drug blood d to:
A. Dangerous side effects
B. Death
C. Heart arrhythmias
D. All of the above
D. All of the above
Aspirin is also known as:
A. Acetaminophen
B. Salicylate
C. Phenytoin
D. Dilantin
B. Salicylate
A patient that is being treated for advanced symptoms relating to a malignant tumor is expected to receive their medication at 1500. Upon arriving at the patients room, you discover the RN has given the patient their medication at 1445 due to acute pain. a blood sample collected between 1500-1515 should be ordered as a:
A. Toxic level
B. Trough level
C. Peak level
D. Therapeutic level
C. Peak level
D. Therapeutic level
27. Requisitions for TDM blood draws should have what testing priority?
A. ASAP
B. Routine
C. Timed
D. STAT
C. Timed
An anti-epileptic drug is primarily used:
A. To prevent or decrease seizures
B. to decrease body temperature
C. To decrease pain
D. To destroy bacteria
A. To prevent or decrease seizures
Carbamazepine is an example of what type of drug?
A. Bronchodilator
B. Antibiotic
C. Antiepileptic
D. MI Prophylaxis
C. Antiepileptic
While asking for the last dosage information, it is discovered that the previous scheduled dose was missed and the next scheduled dose is not to be administered for another 6 hours. A blood sample that is collected at this time would best be ordered as:
A. Random level
B. Therapeutic level
C. Peak level
D. Trough level
A. Random level
What is the most commonly used specimen for drug testing?
A. Skin
B. Hair
C. Breath
D. Urine
D. Urine
As a sample type for drug testing, blood can be characterized as being:
A. Easy to tamper with
B. Non-invasive
C. Inexpensive
D. Invasive
D. Invasive
Responsibilities for a clinical laboratory assistant include?
A. Venipuncture
B. Specimen preparation
C. Clinical order entry
D. All of the above
D. All of the above
The temperature of a urine sample used for drug testing should closely resemble?
A. Body temperature
B. Room temperature
C. Refrigeration temperature
D. Freezer temperature
A. Body temperature
35. The acronym "COC" commonly refers to:
A. Central operation council
B. Custody of California
C. Chain of Custody
D. Chain of contamination
C. Chain of Custody
Three levels of testing complexity have been defined by?
A. OSHA
B. CLIA
C. JCAHO
D. NCCLS
B. CLIA
In order to compensate for a high testing volume, employers often will use what cost effective means of random drug testing?
A. Hair
B. Urine
C. Blood
D. None of the above
B. Urine
The study of structures and forms of the body organs and systems is?
A. Physiology
B. Anatomy
C. Pathology
D. Microbiology
B. Anatomy
Rod shaped bacteria are commonly referred to as:
A. Spirochetes
B. Spirila
C. Vibrio
D. Bacilli
D. Bacilli
Gram negative bacteria will appear what color when stained:
A. Blue
B. Black
C. Red
D. Purple
C. Red
The process of destroying all microorganisms and their spores is called:
A. Sterilization
B. Sanitization
C. Disinfection
D. Cleaning
A. Sterilization
Bacteria that require oxygen to survive are classified as?
A. Aerobic
B. Anaerobic
C. Facultative
D. Pathogenic
A. Aerobic
Culture media that allows one organism to rapidly grow while indirectly inhibiting the growth of unwanted organisms are called:
A. Selective media
B. Enrichment media
C. Supportive media
D. Differential media
B. Enrichment media
Complete destruction of red blood cells on a culture media is classified as:
A. Alpha reaction
B. Beta reaction
C. Gamma reaction
D. Delta reaction
B. Beta reaction
The optimum temperature for growth of bacteria during incubation is?
A. 35° C
B. 65° C
C. 7° C
D. 3° C
A. 35° C
A chancre sore appears at the invasion site during what stage of syphilis?
A. Primary stage of syphilis
B. Latent stage of syphilis
C. Late stage of syphilis
D. Secondary stage of syphilis
A. Primary stage of syphilis
Strep can most quickly be detected through what test?
A. Rapid strep
B. VDRL
C. RPR
D. Culture
A. Rapid strep
Infectious mononucleosis is commonly transmitted through:
A. Blood transfusion
B. Skin contact
C. Respiratory droplets
D. Intestinal tract
C. Respiratory droplets
In rheumatoid arthritis slide testing, if the middle square shows agglutination, that means:
A. the specimen is positive for RA
B. The specimen is negative for RA
C. All of the above
D. None of the above
A. the specimen is positive for RA
HCG stands for:
A. Human Chronic Gonadotropin
B. Human Chorionic Gonadotropin
C. Human Chorionic Geriatrics
D. Human Chronic Genotropin
B. Human Chorionic Gonadotropin
. Which of the following is considered to be a treatment for mononucleosis?
A. Penicillin
B. Bed rest
C. Anti-serum
D. Steroids
B. Bed rest
. Rheumatoid arthritis is known to affect which of the following?
A. Joints
B. Synovial membranes
C. Connective tissue
D. All of the above
D. All of the above
When is a patients medication level at the lowest positive concentration?
A. Just after the 2nd dose
B. Before starting any drug therapy
C. 2 hours after 1st dose
D. Just before a patients 3rd dose
D. Just before a patients 3rd dose
TDM is used to achieve what level of treatment for the patient?
A. Peak level
B. Therapeutic level
C. Toxic level
D. Trough level
B. Therapeutic level
Which of the following should always be indicated on a TDM specimen:
1. Patient address
2. Time the test was collected
3. Last dose given to the patient
4. Name of drug level being tested
A. 1, 2
B. 2, 4
C. 1, 2, 3
D. 2, 3, 4
D. 2, 3, 4
Which of the following would be best for destroying microorganisms responsible for an ongoing infection?
A. Valporic acid
B. Gentamicin
C. Theophylline
D. Tegretol
B. Gentamicin
Which of the following drugs is a cardio tonic?
A. Phenytoin
B. Phenobarbital
C. Valporic acid
D. Digoxin
D. Digoxin
Valporic acid is primarily used as what?
A. Bronchodilator
B. Antiepileptic
C. Analgesic
D. Antibiotic
B. Antiepileptic
Which of the following is known to positively affect cardiac output by increasing contractility of heart muscle?
A. Antiepileptic
B. Antipyretic
C. Bronchoeartilator
D. Cardio tonic
D. Cardio tonic
Tylenol is also known as which of the following:
A. Carbamazepine
B. Prophylaxis
C. Acetaminophen
D. Salicylate
C. Acetaminophen