mixed
mixed
mixed
mixed
100

Which of the following characteristics would enable a medical assistant to effectively communicate with patients?

A. Impartiality
B. Judgmental
C. Biases
D. Stereotyping
E. Discrimination 

A. Impartiality

A principle of justice holding that decisions should be based on objective criteria, rather than on the basis of bias, prejudice, or preferring the benefit to one person over another for improper reasons.

100

Which of the following foods should be eliminated from the diet of a patient on a sodium restricted diet?

A. Baked fish products
B. Pasteurized, processed cheese
C. Green leafy vegetables
D. Fresh fruits
E. Fried Chicken

B. Pasteurized, processed cheese

When following a sodium-restricted diet, the goal is to limit sodium intake to prevent or manage conditions such as hypertension or heart failure. Some foods naturally contain sodium, while others are high in sodium due to added salt during processing or preparation.

100

Which of the following would be decreased when a patient mails a check to the clinic to pay for services previously rendered? 

A. Disbursement account
B. Accounts payable
C. Accounts receivable
D. Balance sheet
E. Income statement

C. Accounts receivable

When a patient mails a check to the clinic to pay for services previously rendered, the payment reduces the amount the clinic is owed. In accounting terms, this affects the Accounts Receivable because it represents money owed to the business.

100

Upon accepting a patient for treatment, the physician has a duty to do which of the following:

A. Be free from errors in judgment
B. Provide services similar to that of other physicians with the same level of training who provide the same service.
C. Possess the highest degree of skill possible
D. Restore the patient to the same condition as before treatment began.
E. Guarantee a successful result if an operation is performed.

B. Provide services similar to that of other physicians with the same level of training who provide the same service.

When a physician accepts a patient for treatment, they have a duty of care. This means the physician is obligated to provide care that meets the standard of care, which is the level of care that is generally accepted by other physicians in the same field and with the same level of training. This duty doesn't require perfection but does require providing a reasonable and competent level of care.

200

Which of the following positions would be appropriate for a patient with severe emphysema who is waiting to be examined by the physician?

A. Supine
B. knee-chest
C. Fowler
D. Sims
E. Trendelenburg

C. Fowler

Semi-fowler- Patient is positioned in a reclining position, with the head of the bed elevated to about 30-45 degrees. This angle allows for better lung expansion and can reduce the sensation of breathlessness.

High-fowler- Patient sits upright, with the head of the bed elevated to a 90-degree angle. This position is helpful if the patient is severely short of breath. It maximizes lung expansion and facilitates diaphragmatic movement.

200

Which of the following is the best course of action for the medical assistant to take when responding to a call from a patient who had an intramuscular injection earlier in the day and who now reports weakness in that arm? 

A. Make an appointment for the patient and inform the physician of the problem.
B. Refer the patient to a neurologist for evaluation.
C. Tell the patient to keep a heating pad on the arm and take two aspirin.
D. Explain to the patient that this is a normal reaction and if the weakness does not improve in a few days, call back.
E. Obtain as much information as possible, explaining to the patient that the doctor will advise, and the call returned.

E. Obtain as much information as possible, explaining to the patient that the doctor will advise, and the call returned.

  • Obtain detailed information: This includes when the weakness started, whether there is any pain, swelling, or redness at the injection site, whether the weakness is getting worse, and if there are other symptoms like fever, numbness, or tingling.
  • Explain to the patient that the physician will evaluate the situation: The physician should be made aware of the issue to determine whether the weakness is a normal side effect of the injection or if further evaluation is needed.
200

Toprol XL (metoprolol) is known to cause which of the following conditions?

A. Hypernatremia
B. Hypokalemia
C. Bradycardia
D. Chloasma
E. Hypertension

C. Bradycardia

Toprol XL (metoprolol) is a beta-blocker, primarily used to treat hypertension (high blood pressure), angina, and heart failure. One of the common side effects of beta-blockers like metoprolol is bradycardia, which is a condition characterized by an abnormally slow heart rate.

200

State laws vary regarding responsibilities of the physician in reporting conditions. However, all states require the reporting of which of the following?

A. Deaths due to violence
B. Congenital metabolic disorders
C. Metastatic neoplasms
D. Spina bifida
E. Fetal alcohol syndrome

A. Deaths due to violence 

This includes deaths from homicide, suicide, or accidents that involve violence or potential foul play. Reporting such deaths is crucial for public safety and for legal purposes, as it helps in investigations to ensure proper legal action is taken.

300

The following patients are in the reception room when the physician arrives. Which patient should be seen first? 

A. A 16 year old football player who was injured and has slurred speech and confusion.
B. An afebrile 60 year old with a cough and sore throat of 48 hours duration.
C. A 16 year old with menorrhagia over the past 2 days.
D. An 8 year old with 102 degree fever and cough of 12 hours duration.
E. A 10 year old child with diarrhea over the past 24 hours.

A. A 16 year old football player who was injured and has slurred speech and confusion. 

Slurred speech and confusion are red flag symptoms. These could indicate a head injury, or a neurological event. Given that these symptoms can quickly deteriorate into something life-threatening (e.g., brain swelling, stroke), this patient should be seen immediately to assess their neurological status and rule out any serious causes.

300

Which of the following is a suffix referring to pain?

A. -penia
B. -malacia
C. -dynia
D. -acusis
E. -orexia

C. -dynia: This suffix specifically refers to pain (e.g., cephalodynia meaning headache or pain in the head). 

-penia: This suffix refers to deficiency or low levels of something (e.g., leukopenia meaning low white blood cell count).
-malacia: This suffix refers to softening of tissue (e.g., osteomalacia meaning softening of bones).
-acusis: This suffix refers to hearing (e.g., presbyacusis meaning age-related hearing loss)
-orexia: This suffix refers to appetite (e.g., anorexia meaning loss of appetite). 




300

A medical assistant makes an error while under the physician's direction. Under which of the following doctrines will the court determine that the physician is liable for the medical assistant's negligence?

A. Respondeat superior
B. Res judicata
C. Res ipsa loquitur
D. Locum tenens
E. Contributory negligence

A. Respondeat superior 

Respondeat superior is a legal doctrine that holds an employer (in this case, the physician) liable for the actions of their employees (in this case, the medical assistant) when those actions occur within the scope of employment.

300
Which of the following criteria is most often used for assessing the pulse on a conscious patient? 


A. Temporal
B. Femoral
C. Dorsalis pedis
D. Radial
E. Brachial

D. Radial 

Radial pulse is located on the wrist, on the thumb side, and is easily accessible. It provides a quick and reliable way to assess the heart rate in most situations. 

400

Which of the following terms describes an abnormal lateral curvature of the patient's spine?

A. Spondylosis
B. Ankylosis
C. Lordosis
D. Kyphosis
E. Scoliosis

E. Scoliosis

This specifically refers to an abnormal lateral curvature of the spine, often forming an "S" or "C" shape. It can occur at any part of the spine but is most commonly seen in the thoracic or lumbar regions.

400

According to the Current Procedural Terminology (CPT) coding rules, a new patient is one who has not received professional services from the physician or a qualified health care professional in the practice of the exact same specialty and subspecialty for a MINIMUM of how many years?

A. 1 year
B. 2 years
C. 3 years
D. 4 years
E. 5 years

D. 3 years

A new patient is one who has not received professional services from the physician or a qualified healthcare professional in the exact same specialty and subspecialty for a minimum of 3 years.

400

Which of the following describes a surgical procedure that connects the common bile duct with the middle portion of the small intestine?

A. Choledochoduodenostomy
B. Choledochojejunostomy
C. Choledocholithotomy
D. Choledochoenterostomy
E. Choledochostomy

B. Choledochojejunostomy

Med term breakdown: 
Chole-: This prefix refers to bile.
-docho-: This part comes from the Greek word "doche," meaning duct.
-jejun-: This refers to the jejunum, which is the middle section of the small intestine, located between the duodenum and ileum.
-ostomy: This suffix means creating an opening or surgical formation of a passage.


400

Which of the following is the proper cleansing technique with the alcohol pad when preparing the skin for an injection?

A. Wipe in a recurring circular motion over the injection site starting out and moving forward
B. Move the wipe vertically going from left to right across the injection site, starting approximately 1 inch from the injection site.
C. Wipe horizontally beginning three inches above the injection site and ending three inches below the site.
D. Wipe in an "S" movement across the injection site
E. Wipe in a circular motion beginning at the injection site and moving outward. 

E. Wipe in a circular motion beginning at the injection site and moving outward.

You should wipe in a circular motion starting from the center (the injection site) and moving outward. This technique helps to prevent introducing bacteria or dirt from the surrounding skin to the cleaned area at the injection site.

500

After examining a competent adult patient who was bitten by a wild animal, the physician advises the patient to have a series of rabies injections. The Patient refuses to undergo the injections and leaves the office. Which of the following actions should be taken by the practice?

A. Notify the physician's malpractice insurance carrier.
B. Notify the police.
C. Notify the local medical society.
D. Send a certified letter to the patient outlining the consequences.
E. Send a certified letter to the patient's family with a copy to the patient.

D. Send a certified letter to the patient outlining the consequences.

This is necessary to document that the physician has informed the patient of the dangers of refusing the rabies treatment. The letter should outline the consequences of not undergoing the rabies injections, which could include death from rabies. It is important to have written documentation in case of legal or medical inquiries later.

500

Which of the following is most be included in the subjective portion of a SOAP chart note? 

A. Retinal detachment
B. Diazepam (Valium) 5 mg
C. Pulse 60 bpm
D. Dizziness for three days
E. Normal sinus rhythm

D. Dizziness for three days

The subjective portion of a SOAP note includes the patient's reported symptoms, concerns, and history. This is based on what the patient tells the healthcare provider, not what is observed or measured by the provider.

500

Coding for the removal of a pituitary tumor is located under which of the following body system descriptions of the Current Procedural Terminology (CPT) book?

A. Musculoskeletal
B. Urinary
C. Nervous
D. Circulatory
E. Endocrine

E. Endocrine

While the pituitary gland is located in the brain, it is part of the endocrine system because it plays a crucial role in hormone regulation.

500

Which of the following is performed to obtain fluid from a joint?

A. Pneumonocentesis
B. Paracentesis
C. Arthrocentesis
D. Thoracentesis
E. Tympanocentesis

C. Arthrocentesis 

Arthrocentesis is the medical procedure used to obtain fluid from a joint. It involves inserting a needle into the joint space to aspirate (withdraw) synovial fluid for diagnostic purposes, such as checking for infection, inflammation, or the presence of crystals (e.g., in gout).

M
e
n
u