Physiology
Anatomy
Bone disorders
Joints
Tumors
100
What is the role of estrogen in bone formation?
Estrogen inhibits apoptosis in bone forming osteoblasts and induces apoptosis in bone-resorbing osteoclasts.
100
What are the muscle that form the Rotator cuff?
Supraspinatus, Infraspinatus, Teres minor, Subscapularis
100
What are the labs (Calcium, phosphate, ALP, PTH) for osteoporosis?
No change in anything.
100
What HLA is associated with almost all Seronegative spondyloarthropathies?
What is HLA-B27
100
Has a "soap bubble" appearance on X-ray?
What is Giant cell tumor
200
What is the role of PTH at low levels in bone formation?
What is exerts anabolic effects (building bone) on osteoblasts and osteoclasts.
200
Rotator Cuff muscles are primarily innervated by ___
C5-6
200
What are the 4 stages of Paget's disease of bone?
1. Lytic (increased osteoclast activity) 2. Mixed (osteoclast +osteoblasts) 3. Sclerotic ( osteoblast lay down as much bone as possible) 4. Quiescent (minimal osteoclast/osteoblast activity) End result = thick sclerotic bone that fractures easily
200
A patient presents with Conjunctivitis, urethritis, and arthritis, what do they have?
Reactive arthritis.
200
What do you see on histology with Ewing sarcoma?
Anaplastic small blue cells
300
What is the difference between Type 1 and type 2 muscle fibers?
Type 1 - slow twitch; red fibers resulting from increased mitochondria and myoglobin concentration (increase in oxidative phosphorylation --> sustained contraction Type 2- Fast twitch; white fibers resulting from decreased mitochondria and myoglobin concentration (increase anaerobic glycolysis); weight training results in hypertrophy of fast twitch muscle fibers
300
What are the wrist bones? Must name all 8.
Scaphoid, Lunate, Triquetrum, Pisiform, Hamate, Capitate, Trapezoid, Trapezium
300
What are the 3 main clinical features of Osteogenesis Imperfecta?
Multiple fractures of the bone, blue sclera, and hearing loss
300
What are the risk factors for osteoarthritis (3)?
Age, obesity, joint deformity, trauma
300
Where do chondrosarcomas usually appear?
Medulla of the pelvis or central skeleton, spine, scapula, humerus, tibia, or femur.
400
What step in skeletal muscle contraction is disrupted, resulting in rigor mortis?
Release of myosin head from the actin molecule (ATP binds to myosin)
400
If someone falls on an outstretched hand, what bone of the wrist will most likely be damage? What nerve would be damaged?
Hook of hamate; ulnar nerve injury
400
Activation of this is what actually inhibits chondrocyte proliferation in Achondroplasia...
What is fibroblast growth factor receptor (FGFR3)
400
Patient presents with rheumatoid arthritis and dry mucous membranes and dry eyes, what do they have?
What is Sjogren syndrome.
400
How does an osteosarcoma appear on X-ray? Where on the bone does it affect?
Codman triangle; metaphysis
500
What is endochondral ossification? (which bones it forms, and how)
Bones of axial and appendicular skeleton, and base of the skull. Cartilaginous model of bone is first made by chondrocytes. Osteoclasts and osteoblasts later replace the woven bone and then remodel to lamellar bone.
500
Injury to what nerve presents with trendelenburg sign? What is trendelenburg sign?
Injury to the Superior Gluteal Nerve (L4-S1); Pelvis tilts because weight-bearing leg cannot maintain alignment of pelvis though hip abduction. Lesion is contralateral to the side of the hip that drops, ipsilateral to extremity on which the patient stands.
500
Go on the board and draw the following: Greenstick fracture, Spiral fracture, Comminuted fracture, transverse fracture, and compound fracture
Pat...help me make sure this is right.
500
What are the prophylactic drugs of Chronic gout (1 main one)? What are the acute gout drugs (name 3)?
Prophylactic - allopurinol Acute - NSAIDs, glucocorticoids, colchicine
500
What is the most common tumor of the bone?
Metastatic
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