VOR Station
hat indication should a pilot receive when a VOR station is undergoing maintenance and may be considered unreliable?
A. No coded identification, but possible navigation indications.
B. Coded identification, but no navigation indications.
C. A voice recording on the VOR frequency announcing that the VOR is out of service for maintenance.
A. No coded identification, but possible navigation indications.
When flying directly over a published airborne VOR checkpoint, what is the maximum error allowed for IFR flight?
A. Plus or minus 6° of the designated radial.
B. Plus 6° or minus 4° of the designated radial.
C. Plus or minus 4° of the designated radial.
A. Plus or minus 6° of the designated radial.
As a rule of thumb, to minimize DME slant range error, how far from the facility should you be to consider the reading as accurate?
A. Two miles or more for each 1,000 feet of altitude above the facility.
B. One or more miles for each 1,000 feet of altitude above the facility.
C. No specific distance is specified since the reception is line-of-sight.
B. One or more miles for each 1,000 feet of altitude above the facility.
How can a pilot determine if a Global Positioning System (GPS) installed in an aircraft is approved for IFR en route and IFR approaches?
A. Flight manual supplement.
B. GPS operator’s manual.
C. Aircraft owner’s handbook.
A. Flight manual supplement.
What are the primary benefits of satellite based area navigation (RNAV)?
A. Provides optimal routing and altitudes.
B. Radio tuning and controller communication is minimized.
C. Standard Terminal Arrival Routes and Departure Procedures are not required.
A. Provides optimal routing and altitudes.
For operations off established airways at 17,000 feet MSL in the contiguous U.S., (H) Class VORTAC facilities used to define a direct route of flight should be no farther apart than
A. 75 NM.
B. 100 NM.
C. 200 NM.
C. 200 NM.
When making an airborne VOR check, what is the maximum allowable tolerance between the two indicators of a dual VOR system (units independent of each other except the antenna)?
A. 4° between the two indicated radials of a VOR.
B. Plus or minus 4° when set to identical radials of a VOR.
C. 6° between the two indicated radials of a VOR
A. 4° between the two indicated radials of a VOR.
Which distance is displayed by the DME indicator?
A. Slant range distance in NM.
B. Slant range distance in SM.
C. Line-of-sight direct distance from aircraft to VORTAC in SM.
A. Slant range distance in NM.
Hand-held GPS systems, and GPS systems certified for VFR operation, may be used during IFR operations as
A. the principal reference to determine en route waypoints.
B. an aid to situational awareness.
C. the primary source of navigation.
B. an aid to situational awareness.
Effective navigation by means of GPS includes
A. determining the current status of all databases.
B. ensuring that ATC approves your planned route.
C. relying solely on the GPS for course information.
A. determining the current status of all databases.
What angular deviation from a VOR course centerline is represented by a full-scale deflection of the CDI?
A. 4°.
B. 5°.
C. 10°.
C. 10°.
How should the pilot make a VOR receiver check when the aircraft is located on the designated checkpoint on the airport surface?
A. With the aircraft headed directly toward the VOR and the OBS set to 000°, the CDI should center within plus or minus 4° of that radial with a TO indication.
B. Set the OBS on the designated radial. The CDI must center within plus or minus 4° of that radial with a FROM indication.
C. Set the OBS on 180° plus or minus 4°; the CDI should center with a FROM indication.
B. Set the OBS on the designated radial. The CDI must center within plus or minus 4° of that radial with a FROM indication.
The greatest DME indication error between actual ground distance and displayed ground distance occurs at
A. high altitudes far from the VORTAC.
B. high altitudes close to the VORTAC.
C. low altitudes far from the VORTAC.
B. high altitudes close to the VORTAC.
When may VFR waypoints be used in IFR flight plans?
A. When GPS is used as the primary source of navigation.
B. When the waypoints consist of 5 letter identifiers.
C. VFR waypoints may not be used on IFR flight plans.
C. VFR waypoints may not be used on IFR flight plans.
Reliance on GPS units
A. can cause pilots to lose proficiency in performing manual calculations of time, distance, and heading.
B. will increase a pilot’s skill in navigating by visual reference.
C. does not decrease pilot workload.
A. can cause pilots to lose proficiency in performing manual calculations of time, distance, and heading.
When using VOR for navigation, which of the following should be considered as station passage?
A. The first movement of the CDI as the airplane enters the zone of confusion.
B. The moment the TO-FROM indicator becomes blank.
C. The first positive, complete reversal of the TO-FROM indicator.
C. The first positive, complete reversal of the TO-FROM indicator.
Where can the VOT frequency for a particular airport be found?
A. On the IAP Chart and in the Chart Supplement.
B. Only in the Chart Supplement.
In the Chart Supplement and on the A/G Voice Communication Panel of the En Route Low Altitude Chart.
B. Only in the Chart Supplement.
To ensure situational awareness while using an autopilot system
A. pilots must verify that the aircraft is tracking the intended flight profile.
B. it is important to ensure that all navigational databases are current.
C. current navigational charts are required.
A. pilots must verify that the aircraft is tracking the intended flight profile.
During IFR en route and terminal operations using an approved TSO-C129 or TSO-C196 GPS system for navigation, ground based navigational facilities
A. are only required during the approach portion of the flight.
B. must be operational along the entire route.
C. must be operational only if RAIM predicts an outage.
B. must be operational along the entire route.
Your aircraft is equipped with a WAAS enabled GPS unit. While performing a GPS approach, you note an “LNAV+V available” indication on the moving map display. You know that
A. you can use the LPV minimums line on the IAP chart with this indication.
B. the indication reflects an artificially created advisory glidepath that you can use to descend to the LNAV MDA.
C. you can descend to GBAS approach minimums indicated on the IAP.
B. the indication reflects an artificially created advisory glidepath that you can use to descend to the LNAV MDA.
After passing a VORTAC, the CDI shows 1/2-scale deflection to the right. What is indicated if the deflection remains constant for a period of time?
A. The airplane is getting closer to the radial.
B. The OBS is erroneously set on the reciprocal heading.
C. The airplane is flying away from the radial.
C. The airplane is flying away from the radial.
What process should a pilot use to run a VOR receiver check when the aircraft is located on the airport surface?
A. Set the OBS on the designated radial. The CDI must center within ±4° of that radial with a FROM indication.
B. Set the OBS on the designated radial. The CDI must center within ±6° of that radial with a FROM indication.
C. Set the OBS on the designated radial. The CDI must center within ±4° of that radial with a TO indication.
A. Set the OBS on the designated radial. The CDI must center within ±4° of that radial with a FROM indication.
Which of the following is a benefit of flying with an autopilot?
A. Pilots will not need to worry about controlling airspeed or throttle settings.
B. Airspace restrictions will automatically be avoided.
C. Pilot workload is reduced.
C. Pilot workload is reduced.
When your aircraft is equipped with a TSO-C129 or TSO-C196 GPS, an airport may not be qualified for alternate use if
A. the only standard approach procedure is GPS at the destination and alternate.
B. the airport has only AWOS-3 weather reporting and no LAAS equipment operational.
C. the airport is next to a restricted or prohibited area.
A. the only standard approach procedure is GPS at the destination and alternate.
GPS systems certified for IFR operations cannot be used as a substitute for DME receivers
A. to determine aircraft position or a DME fix at altitudes above 24,000 feet.
B. to fly a DME arc.
C. in selecting an alternate that requires use of DME.
C. in selecting an alternate that requires use of DME.