aggies
A nurse is caring for a client with myasthenia gravis who takes pyridostigmine. The client develops worsening difficulty swallowing, a weak cough, and increasing respiratory effort. The nurse is reviewing the medication administration record and notes that the client recently received an additional dose of pyridostigmine.
Which assessment finding would most strongly support a cholinergic crisis rather than a myasthenic crisis?
A. Progressive respiratory muscle weakness accompanied by ptosis, diplopia, and difficulty sustaining voluntary movement.
B. Increasing respiratory weakness accompanied by excessive salivation, abdominal cramping, diarrhea, and bradycardia.
C. Worsening swallowing difficulty accompanied by generalized fatigue, weak neck flexion, and no prominent autonomic symptoms.
D. Declining vital capacity accompanied by weak speech, impaired head control, and increasing fatigue after repeated movement.
B. Respiratory weakness with excessive salivation, abdominal cramping, diarrhea, and bradycardia — Correct. These findings suggest cholinergic crisis, which can occur with excessive acetylcholinesterase inhibitor effects, such as from pyridostigmine. Excess acetylcholine causes both muscle weakness and muscarinic symptoms, including increased secretions, gastrointestinal hyperactivity, and bradycardia
A nurse is caring for a client following a traumatic brain injury. The client has an intracranial pressure (ICP) monitor. While the client is being repositioned, the ICP rises from 14 mmHg to 27 mmHg and remains elevated. The client becomes restless, and the nurse observes that the client's head is turned sharply to one side with the neck flexed.
Which intervention should the nurse perform first?
Select one answer.
A. Reposition the head and neck to maintain neutral alignment, elevate the head of the bed as prescribed, and reassess ICP promptly.
B. Lower the head of the bed to improve cerebral perfusion and repeat the ICP measurement after the client settles.
C. Perform vigorous passive range-of-motion exercises to reduce muscle stiffness and decrease the client's agitation.
D. Administer a prescribed sedative immediately and defer further positioning until the ICP returns to its previous baseline.
A. Maintain neutral alignment and elevate the head — Correct. Neck flexion and rotation can obstruct jugular venous drainage, increasing intracranial pressure. Neutral head and neck alignment, with the head of the bed typically elevated about 30 degrees when appropriate, can promote venous drainage and help reduce ICP. Reassess the response promptly.
A nurse is caring for a client with myasthenia gravis who has difficulty chewing and swallowing near mealtimes. The client takes pyridostigmine several times daily and reports that eating is easier when the medication is working effectively.
Which intervention is most appropriate?
Select one answer.
A. Schedule meals immediately before each pyridostigmine dose so the client can eat before medication-related gastrointestinal effects begin.
B. Coordinate meals for the medication's expected peak benefit, assess swallowing safety, and provide appropriate aspiration precautions.
C. Withhold pyridostigmine before meals because increased acetylcholine activity may worsen weakness during chewing and swallowing.
D. Encourage large meals late in the evening when the client has had several hours of rest and can tolerate prolonged chewing.
B. Coordinate meals with medication effectiveness — Correct. Pyridostigmine improves neuromuscular transmission and can improve muscle strength in clients with myasthenia gravis. Scheduling meals when the medication is working effectively may improve chewing and swallowing. The nurse must also assess aspiration risk and follow appropriate swallowing precautions
A nurse is caring for a 59-year-old client who was admitted following a traumatic brain injury from a motor vehicle collision. The client’s neurological status was stable during the previous shift. During the current assessment, the nurse observes that the client is increasingly difficult to arouse and has vomited twice.
The assessment findings are:
Blood pressure: 186/62 mm Hg
Heart rate: 48/min
Respiratory rate: 10/min and irregular
Oxygen saturation: 93% on room air
Pupils: Right pupil 5 mm and sluggish; left pupil 3 mm and reactive
Which action should the nurse take first?
A. Dim the lights and allow the client to rest before repeating the neurological assessment.
B. Administer the prescribed PRN opioid analgesic to reduce discomfort and agitation.
C. Elevate the head of the bed approximately 30 degrees, maintain neutral head alignment, and activate an emergency response for suspected increased intracranial pressure.
D. Perform repeated deep suctioning to stimulate the client and improve the respiratory rate.
C. Elevate the head of the bed and activate an emergency response: Correct. The client has signs of dangerously increased ICP, including decreased consciousness, vomiting, unequal pupils, bradycardia, widened pulse pressure, and irregular respirations. Elevating the head approximately 30 degrees with the neck in a neutral position can promote venous drainage while emergency assistance is obtained.
A nurse is caring for a client with a spinal cord injury at the T4 level who is undergoing rehabilitation. The client suddenly reports a severe headache and feeling flushed. The nurse observes profuse sweating above the level of injury and pale, cool skin below it.
The client’s blood pressure is 208/110 mm Hg, compared with a usual reading of 108/68 mm Hg. The heart rate is 52/min. The client’s urinary catheter tubing is found kinked beneath the client’s leg.
Which action should the nurse take first?
A. Place the client flat in bed and administer the prescribed opioid analgesic.
B. Sit the client upright, loosen restrictive clothing, and immediately assess and relieve the urinary obstruction.
C. Encourage the client to drink water and reassess the blood pressure in 30 minutes.
D. Perform vigorous lower-extremity range-of-motion exercises to improve circulation.
B. Sit the client upright, loosen clothing, and relieve the urinary obstruction: Correct. This client has autonomic dysreflexia, a medical emergency that commonly occurs with spinal cord injuries at or above T6. Sitting upright helps lower blood pressure, and a kinked catheter can cause bladder distention that triggers the episode.
A nurse is caring for a client who has epilepsy and takes phenytoin. The client has been seizure-free for several months but reports that their gums have become swollen and bleed during brushing. The nurse also notes poor oral hygiene and visible gingival enlargement.
Which response by the nurse is most appropriate?
Select one answer.
A. Explain that the client should stop phenytoin temporarily and restart it after the gum swelling has resolved.
B. Recommend limiting toothbrushing until the gums heal and requesting a lower medication dose at the next routine visit.
C. Explain that gingival enlargement can occur with phenytoin, reinforce careful oral hygiene, and arrange dental evaluation.
D. Recommend increasing dietary calcium and vitamin D while monitoring whether the gum swelling decreases over the next several weeks.
C. Reinforce oral hygiene and arrange dental evaluation — Correct. Phenytoin can cause gingival hyperplasia, or enlargement of the gums. Good oral hygiene and regular dental assessment help reduce complications. The prescriber can evaluate whether medication adjustments are appropriate.
A nurse is caring for a client with Guillain-Barré syndrome who has progressive ascending weakness. During the shift, the client's blood pressure fluctuates from 88/50 mmHg to 186/102 mmHg, and the heart rate varies between 48 and 132/min. The client reports feeling lightheaded when the head of the bed is raised.
Which nursing action is the priority?
Select one answer.
A. Encourage gradual position changes and continue routine vital-sign monitoring because fluctuations commonly accompany prolonged immobility.
B. Administer the prescribed antihypertensive medication when the blood pressure is elevated and reassess before the next scheduled dose.
C. Notify the provider urgently, institute continuous cardiac monitoring, and maintain close observation for dangerous autonomic instability.
D. Increase oral fluid intake and apply compression stockings before repeating orthostatic measurements during the next activity period.
C. Notify the provider and institute continuous cardiac monitoring — Correct. Guillain-Barré syndrome can affect the autonomic nervous system, causing significant blood pressure fluctuations, bradycardia, tachycardia, and potentially life-threatening arrhythmias. Urgent escalation and continuous monitoring are necessary.
A nurse is caring for a client with Parkinson’s disease who has difficulty swallowing. Which intervention is most appropriate to reduce the risk of aspiration?
A. Encourage the client to drink liquids through a straw with each bite.
B. Have the client lie down for 30 minutes after meals.
C. Encourage the client to eat quickly before becoming tired.
D. Position the client upright during meals and assess swallowing ability.
D. Position the client upright during meals and assess swallowing ability: Correct. Upright positioning helps swallowing and reduces aspiration risk. A swallowing evaluation can identify appropriate food and liquid textures.
A nurse in a medical unit is caring for a 46-year-old client with myasthenia gravis who takes pyridostigmine. The client reports increasing weakness and difficulty chewing during dinner. During the assessment, the nurse notes excessive salivation, abdominal cramping, diarrhea, and sweating. The client’s heart rate is 44/min, and respirations are shallow.
Which action should the nurse take first?
A. Withhold the next pyridostigmine dose, activate urgent medical assistance, and support airway and breathing.
B. Administer the next pyridostigmine dose early because increased weakness indicates inadequate medication.
C. Encourage the client to finish dinner slowly and reassess muscle strength in 30 minutes.
D. Place the client flat in bed and administer an antidiarrheal medication.
A. Withhold the next dose, activate urgent assistance, and support airway and breathing: Correct. Excessive salivation, diarrhea, abdominal cramping, sweating, and bradycardia suggest a cholinergic crisis from excessive acetylcholinesterase inhibition. Shallow respirations make airway and breathing the immediate priority. The nurse should withhold further medication pending urgent provider direction and prepare for respiratory support.
A nurse is caring for a 22-year-old client admitted with bacterial meningitis who is receiving prescribed IV antibiotics. During the morning assessment, the client reports worsening headache and nausea. The nurse notes that the client is increasingly drowsy and responds slowly to questions.
The client’s vital signs are:
Temperature: 38.9°C (102°F)
Blood pressure: 158/54 mm Hg
Heart rate: 48/min
Respiratory rate: 10/min and irregular
Oxygen saturation: 94% on room air
Which action should the nurse take first?
A. Administer the prescribed antipyretic and reassess the client in one hour.
B. Encourage oral fluids and decrease environmental stimulation.
C. Document the findings as expected during the first 24 hours of antibiotic treatment.
D. Activate an urgent response, support airway and breathing, and prepare for immediate evaluation of increased intracranial pressure.
D. Activate an urgent response and support airway and breathing: Correct. These findings suggest increased intracranial pressure (ICP) and possible impending neurological deterioration. Immediate intervention is needed to protect the airway and evaluate the cause.
A client arrives in the emergency department with sudden-onset aphasia and right-sided weakness. Symptoms began approximately 90 minutes ago. The noncontrast CT scan shows no intracranial hemorrhage. The client's blood pressure is 198/112 mmHg, and the healthcare team is evaluating eligibility for IV thrombolytic therapy.
Which action should the nurse anticipate before thrombolytic administration?
Select one answer.
A. Administer aspirin immediately because the CT scan excludes hemorrhage, then reassess the client's neurologic deficits.
B. Lower the blood pressure to the thrombolytic-treatment threshold using prescribed therapy and reassess eligibility.
C. Delay all treatment until MRI confirms the precise location and extent of the cerebral infarction.
D. Begin oral antihypertensive therapy and provide fluids before repeating the noncontrast CT scan.
B. Lower blood pressure using prescribed therapy — Correct. Before IV thrombolytic treatment, blood pressure generally must be below 185/110 mmHg. This client's pressure of 198/112 mmHg exceeds both thresholds. Prescribed blood pressure management followed by reassessment helps determine whether the client remains eligible for treatment.
A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client newly prescribed levetiracetam for seizure prevention. The client says, “Since I have not had another seizure in two weeks, I think I can stop taking it.”
Which response by the nurse is best?
Select one answer.
A. “You can stop taking the medication once you have remained seizure-free for one month, provided you continue monitoring for warning signs.”
B. “Continue taking the medication as prescribed, because stopping it abruptly can increase seizure risk; discuss any changes with your prescriber.”
C. “Take the medication only when you experience an aura or other warning symptoms, so you avoid unnecessary medication exposure.”
D. “Reduce the dose gradually on your own over the next week, then contact the clinic if seizure symptoms return.”
B. Continue medication as prescribed — Correct. Levetiracetam helps prevent seizures, but it does not cure the underlying seizure disorder. Abrupt discontinuation can increase seizure frequency and potentially precipitate status epilepticus. Medication changes should be guided by the prescriber.
A nurse is caring for a 34-year-old client who was diagnosed with multiple sclerosis (MS) 3 years ago. The client reports increased muscle weakness, blurred vision, and severe fatigue after spending the afternoon outside in hot weather. The client’s temperature is 37.1°C (98.8°F), and the client denies pain or urinary symptoms. The client states, “I think my MS is getting worse, so I should exercise harder to rebuild my strength.”
Which response by the nurse is most appropriate?
A. “You should increase your exercise intensity because muscle weakness usually improves with strenuous activity.”
B. “These symptoms indicate permanent neurological damage, so you should avoid exercise altogether.”
C. “Heat can temporarily worsen MS symptoms. Rest in a cool environment, and we can reassess your symptoms.”
D. “You should restrict fluids and remain in bed until your vision and muscle strength return to normal.”
C. Rest in a cool environment and reassess: Correct. Increased body temperature can temporarily worsen existing MS symptoms, a phenomenon called Uhthoff phenomenon. Cooling and rest may improve symptoms
A nurse in the emergency department is caring for a 19-year-old college student who presents with a severe headache, fever, photophobia, neck stiffness, and confusion. The provider suspects acute bacterial meningitis. Blood cultures have been obtained, and the client is placed on appropriate isolation precautions.
The cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) results are as follows:
Test
Result
Opening pressure
Elevated
White blood cells
Elevated, predominantly neutrophils
Protein
Elevated
Glucose
Decreased
Which interpretation of these findings should guide the nurse’s understanding of the client’s condition?
A. The results are most consistent with a viral infection that usually resolves without specific treatment.
B. The results suggest a bacterial infection requiring prompt IV antimicrobial therapy.
C. The results indicate normal CSF findings and make meningitis unlikely.
D. The results are most consistent with multiple sclerosis and warrant immediate corticosteroid treatment.
B. Bacterial infection requiring prompt IV antimicrobial therapy: Correct. Elevated opening pressure, neutrophilic pleocytosis, elevated protein, and low glucose are classic findings associated with bacterial meningitis. Prompt treatment is essential to reduce the risk of serious complications
A nurse is reviewing laboratory results for a 39-year-old client with relapsing-remitting multiple sclerosis who recently started interferon beta therapy. The client reports persistent fatigue, muscle aches, and feeling feverish after injections. The client also reports dark urine and right upper abdominal discomfort.
The nurse reviews the following results:
Laboratory test
Current result
Reference range
ALT
286 units/L
7–56 units/L
AST
240 units/L
10–40 units/L
Total bilirubin
2.4 mg/dL
0.1–1.2 mg/dL
White blood cell count
5,800/mm³
4,500–11,000/mm³
Which action should the nurse take?
A. Reassure the client that these findings are expected and recommend continuing therapy without further evaluation.
B. Recommend taking the medication with a high-protein meal to prevent liver irritation.
C. Notify the provider promptly about the possible liver injury and anticipate further evaluation before the next dose.
D. Advise the client to double the next dose if fatigue prevents them from taking the medication on schedule.
C. Notify the provider and anticipate further evaluation: Correct. Interferon beta can cause liver injury. These abnormal results and symptoms require prompt evaluation, and the provider should determine whether treatment needs to be held or changed.
A nurse is preparing medications for a client with Parkinson’s disease who takes carbidopa/levodopa several times daily. The client reports that the medication sometimes takes longer to work after breakfast and that stiffness interferes with dressing in the morning.
Which nursing intervention is most appropriate?
Select one answer.
A. Recommend taking every dose with a high-protein meal to improve medication absorption and prevent nausea.
B. Recommend skipping the morning dose when stiffness is severe and taking two doses together after breakfast.
C. Suggest discussing dose timing in relation to meals with the prescriber and coordinating medication with morning activities.
D. Explain that delayed medication effects are an expected feature of Parkinson’s disease and do not require changes to the medication routine.
C. Coordinate meal timing and medication with activities — Correct. Meals, particularly those high in protein, may affect levodopa's absorption or effectiveness. Collaborating with the prescriber about medication timing and coordinating doses with activities can help improve symptom control and functional independence.
A nurse is evaluating an older adult with Alzheimer’s disease who recently started donepezil. The client's family reports improved attention but notes that the client has experienced two episodes of dizziness and nearly fainted when standing. The client's pulse is 50/min, compared with a baseline of 76/min.
Which nursing action is most appropriate?
Select one answer.
A. Encourage the client to stand more slowly, continue donepezil as prescribed, and reassess the pulse at the next routine appointment.
B. Recommend increasing dietary sodium and fluid intake to improve blood pressure before considering whether the medication contributes to the symptoms.
C. Explain that dizziness is expected during early treatment and continue the medication until the family can evaluate cognitive improvement.
D. Institute fall precautions, promptly notify the provider about symptomatic bradycardia, and obtain guidance before the next dose.
D. Institute fall precautions and notify the provider — Correct. Donepezil can cause clinically significant bradycardia and syncope. The nurse should protect the client from injury, promptly report the findings, and obtain instructions about the next dose rather than independently changing the treatment plan.
A nurse in the emergency department is assessing a 68-year-old client who suddenly developed right-sided weakness, facial drooping, and difficulty speaking while eating breakfast. The client's spouse reports that the client was last seen at their usual neurological baseline 50 minutes ago.
Assessment findings include:
Blood pressure: 174/96 mm Hg
Heart rate: 88/min
Respiratory rate: 18/min
Oxygen saturation: 97% on room air
Blood glucose: 108 mg/dL
Glasgow Coma Scale score: 14
The client is awake but has difficulty following commands. A noncontrast CT scan has been completed and shows no evidence of intracranial hemorrhage.
Which action should the nurse anticipate next?
A. Administer aspirin immediately and schedule a repeat CT scan for the following day.
B. Lower the blood pressure to below 120/80 mm Hg before considering further treatment.
C. Begin oral fluids and medications to determine whether the client can swallow safely.
D. Prepare for evaluation for IV thrombolytic therapy and verify contraindications and relevant laboratory results.
D. Prepare for evaluation for IV thrombolytic therapy: Correct. The client has acute stroke symptoms, a known onset time, and a CT scan showing no hemorrhage. The team should rapidly evaluate eligibility for thrombolytic treatment while checking contraindications and relevant laboratory results.
A nurse is caring for a 76-year-old client who experienced an ischemic stroke 2 days ago. The client has left-sided weakness and slurred speech. During breakfast, the nurse notices that the client coughs after taking a sip of water and has a wet, gurgling voice. The client denies feeling that anything is wrong and asks to finish the meal.
Which action should the nurse take first?
A. Encourage the client to take smaller sips of water and finish breakfast slowly.
B. Stop oral intake and arrange a swallowing assessment before giving additional food, fluids, or oral medications.
C. Place the client in a supine position to reduce fatigue while swallowing.
D. Offer a thickened liquid immediately without consulting the prescribed swallowing recommendations.
B. Stop oral intake and arrange a swallowing assessment: Correct. The nurse should prevent further aspiration and obtain an appropriate swallowing evaluation. Oral medications, food, and fluids should be withheld until safe intake is established.
A nurse is caring for a 51-year-old client with myasthenia gravis who was admitted with pneumonia. The client is receiving prescribed antibiotics and pyridostigmine. During the morning assessment, the client reports that chewing has become more difficult and that their voice sounds weaker than it did yesterday.
The nurse observes bilateral eyelid drooping and notes that the client can count only to 8 on a single breath. The client’s oxygen saturation is 96% on room air, and the respiratory rate is 22/min. The client is alert and denies chest pain.
Which nursing action is the priority?
A. Offer a soft breakfast and administer pyridostigmine after the meal.
B. Notify the provider urgently and assess respiratory muscle strength, anticipating possible respiratory support.
C. Encourage the client to ambulate in the hallway to prevent complications of immobility.
D. Reassure the client that eyelid drooping is expected and repeat the assessment at the end of the shift.
B. Notify the provider urgently and assess respiratory muscle strength: Correct. Worsening bulbar symptoms, a weak voice, and difficulty counting on one breath can indicate progression toward a myasthenic crisis. Respiratory failure can occur even when oxygen saturation initially appears normal.
A client with multiple sclerosis attends a rehabilitation session on a warm afternoon. After exercising, the client reports blurred vision, increased leg weakness, and difficulty walking. The symptoms resemble those experienced during a previous MS exacerbation. The client is afebrile, and the symptoms began after becoming overheated.
Which nursing intervention is most appropriate initially?
Select one answer.
A. Encourage continued exercise at a lower intensity to improve neurologic endurance despite the temporary increase in symptoms.
B. Initiate prescribed high-dose corticosteroids immediately because recurrent neurologic symptoms establish a new inflammatory exacerbation.
C. Restrict oral fluids and maintain bed rest until the client's vision and lower-extremity strength return to baseline.
D. Stop the activity, move the client to a cool environment, allow rest, and reassess whether the symptoms improve as body temperature decreases.
D — Stop the activity, move the client to a cool environment, allow rest, and reassess whether the symptoms improve as body temperature decreases.
Heat can temporarily impair nerve conduction in people with MS, making existing symptoms more noticeable. Cooling and rest may relieve the symptoms. Persistent or new symptoms still require clinical evaluation.
A nurse receives a newly admitted client with suspected meningococcal meningitis. The client has a fever, severe headache, neck stiffness, and a petechial rash. Diagnostic testing is pending.
Which action should the nurse take first to reduce the risk of transmission to others?
Select one answer.
A. Initiate droplet precautions immediately, use appropriate personal protective equipment, and maintain precautions according to infection-control guidance.
B. Initiate airborne precautions and require a fit-tested respirator because meningitis can spread through infectious particles.
C. Use standard precautions until cerebrospinal fluid cultures confirm the organism and the provider establishes a definitive diagnosis.
D. Place the client in a protective environment and restrict staff contact until antibiotic treatment has been completed.
A. Initiate droplet precautions immediately — Correct. Suspected meningococcal meningitis requires prompt droplet precautions because Neisseria meningitidis spreads through respiratory and throat secretions during close contact. Staff should wear a surgical mask when indicated by droplet precautions, along with standard precautions. Precautions are generally maintained until at least 24 hours after effective antimicrobial therapy begins, following facility policy
A nurse is caring for a 24-year-old client admitted after experiencing two generalized tonic-clonic seizures within the past month. The provider prescribes phenytoin for seizure prevention. Before administering the medication, the nurse reviews the client's assessment findings and laboratory results.
The usual therapeutic range for total phenytoin is approximately 10–20 mcg/mL. The client’s total phenytoin level is within that range.
Which action should the nurse take first?
Which action should the nurse take first?
A. Administer the prescribed dose because the total phenytoin level is therapeutic.
B. Hold the medication temporarily and notify the provider about the neurological findings and low albumin level.
C. Administer an additional dose because the client has experienced recent seizures.
D. Encourage the client to ambulate with assistance to improve balance before administering the medication.
B. Hold the medication temporarily and notify the provider: Correct. Drowsiness and an unsteady gait may indicate phenytoin toxicity. Because albumin is low, the nurse should report the findings and anticipate a free phenytoin level or an albumin-adjusted interpretation before further dosing.
A nurse is caring for an 82-year-old client with moderate Alzheimer’s disease who lives in a long-term care facility. At 1700, the client begins pacing near the exit, repeatedly asking to “go home and make dinner for the children.” The client’s children are adults, and the client has lived in the facility for 6 months.
The client becomes increasingly anxious when staff members explain that the children are grown and that the client no longer lives at home. The client attempts to open the secured exit door.
Which nursing intervention is most appropriate?
A. Repeatedly explain the client’s current living situation until the client acknowledges the facts.
B. Tell the client that leaving is prohibited and direct the client to sit alone in their room.
C. Use therapeutic communication to acknowledge the client’s feelings, redirect the client to a familiar activity, and maintain exit safety.
D. Apply physical restraints immediately to prevent the client from attempting to leave again.
C. Acknowledge feelings, redirect, and maintain safety: Correct. Therapeutic communication validates the client’s emotions without arguing about reality. Redirecting to a familiar, meaningful activity can reduce anxiety while staff maintain appropriate supervision near exits.
A nurse is caring for a 74-year-old client with Parkinson’s disease who takes carbidopa/levodopa. During morning care, the client reports feeling dizzy when standing. The nurse assists the client from a lying to a standing position and obtains the following measurements:
Measurement
Lying down
Standing
Blood pressure
142/82 mm Hg
108/64 mm Hg
Heart rate
72/min
86/min
The client grabs the bedside table to avoid falling and reports that the dizziness improves after sitting down. The client has no chest pain, shortness of breath, or new neurological deficits.
Which nursing intervention is most appropriate?
A. Teach the client to change positions slowly, sit at the bedside before standing, and request assistance when dizzy.
B. Encourage the client to stand quickly several times daily to improve the body’s blood pressure response.
C. Restrict fluids throughout the day to prevent blood pressure fluctuations.
D. Instruct the client to discontinue carbidopa/levodopa immediately.
A. Change positions slowly and request assistance: Correct. The client has orthostatic hypotension, demonstrated by a 34 mm Hg systolic blood pressure drop when standing. Rising slowly, sitting at the bedside before standing, and asking for help when dizzy can reduce fall risk.