Oxygenation and Circulation
Psychosocial
Bowel Elimination
Urinary Elimination
Comfort rest and sleep
100

Which finding best indicates adequate oxygenation in an adult patient?

A. Respiratory rate of 24 breaths/min
B. Oxygen saturation of 96%
C. Cyanosis of the lips
D. Use of accessory muscles

Correct Answer: B. Oxygen saturation of 96%

Rationale:
Normal oxygen saturation for a healthy adult is typically 95–100%, indicating adequate oxygenation.

  • A respiratory rate of 24 is elevated.
  • Cyanosis and accessory muscle use are signs of respiratory distress, not adequate oxygenation.
100

The nurse understands that THIS type of stress response is exhibited when she applies nail bed pressure to her patient's fingernails and she withdraws from the painful stimulation. 

A. General adaptation syndrome 

B. Local adaptation syndrome 

C. Selective affect response 

D. Fight or flight 

What is B- local adaptation?

100

Which factor is most important for promoting normal bowel elimination?

A. Increased protein intake
B. Adequate fluid intake
C. Limiting physical activity
D. Taking daily laxatives

Correct Answer: B. Adequate fluid intake

Rationale:
Fluids help soften stool and promote intestinal motility, making bowel movements easier.

  • Limited activity and frequent laxative use can worsen constipation over time.
100

Which amount of urine output indicates adequate kidney function in an adult?

A. 10 mL/hr
B. 20 mL/hr
C. 30 mL/hr
D. 50 mL/hr

Correct Answer: C. 30 mL/hr

Rationale:
Normal urine output for an adult is at least 30 mL/hr. Output below this may indicate decreased renal perfusion or kidney dysfunction.

100

Which nursing intervention best promotes sleep in a hospitalized patient?

A. Administering IV fluids at bedtime
B. Limiting nighttime interruptions
C. Keeping lights on for safety
D. Encouraging daytime naps

Correct Answer: B. Limiting nighttime interruptions

Rationale:
Reducing noise, lighting, and interruptions supports the patient’s circadian rhythm and promotes restorative sleep.

  • Daytime naps may interfere with nighttime sleep.
  • Lights and IV interruptions can disrupt rest.
200

Which position is most appropriate to improve lung expansion in a patient with shortness of breath?

A. Supine
B. Prone
C. Semi-Fowler’s
D. Trendelenburg

Correct Answer: C. Semi-Fowler’s

Rationale:
Semi‑Fowler’s position elevates the head of the bed 30–45°, which decreases pressure on the diaphragm, promotes lung expansion, and improves ventilation.

  • Supine and Trendelenburg can impair breathing.
  • Prone is mainly used in severe respiratory failure (e.g., ARDS), not routine care.
200

KoiYour patient receives bad news this morning and has been lashing out at the nursing staff. You understand he is likely displaying THIS type of ego defense mechanism.

A. Sublimation 

B. Repression 

C. Displacement 

D. Rationalization 

What is C. displacement?

200

Which nursing intervention is most appropriate to prevent constipation in a hospitalized patient?

A. Restricting oral fluids
B. Encouraging early ambulation
C. Administering enemas daily
D. Offering a low‑fiber diet

 Correct Answer: B. Encouraging early ambulation

Rationale:
Movement stimulates peristalsis, helping prevent constipation.
Enemas and low-fiber diets are not first-line preventive measures.

200

Which factor increases the risk for urinary tract infection (UTI)?

A. Increased fluid intake
B. Frequent voiding
C. Urinary catheter use
D. Acidic urine

Correct Answer: C. Urinary catheter use

Rationale:
Indwelling catheters provide a pathway for bacteria to enter the urinary tract and are the leading cause of healthcare‑associated UTIs

200

Which factor most commonly interferes with sleep in hospitalized patients?

A. Diurnal hormone release
B. Vital sign monitoring
C. REM sleep cycles
D. Sleep debt recovery

Correct Answer: B. Vital sign monitoring

Rationale:
Frequent assessments, medications, and alarms are major contributors to sleep disruption in acute care settings.

300

The nurse palpates the carotid pulse primarily to assess which of the following?

A. Peripheral circulation
B. Capillary refill
C. Central circulation during emergencies
D. Blood pressure accuracy

Correct Answer: C. Central circulation during emergencies

Rationale:
The carotid pulse reflects central circulation and is the recommended pulse site during cardiac arrest or shock in adults.

  • Peripheral pulses may be absent during poor perfusion.
  • Capillary refill and blood pressure are assessed differently.
300

Mr. Smith is pacing, shouting, breathing rapidly, and you are unable to reason with him. The nurse underdtands he is likely at ______ level of anxiety, so she ______.  SATA

A. Panic; administers anti-anxiety medications. 

B. Panic; recommends he relax and talk to a counselor 

C. Panic; attempts to assist him with deep breathing exercises. 

D. Delusion; places him in restraints 

What is A and C?

300

A patient reports hard, dry stools and straining during defecation. These findings are most consistent with which condition?

A. Diarrhea
B. Fecal incontinence
C. Constipation
D. Bowel obstruction

Correct Answer: C. Constipation

Rationale:
Constipation is characterized by:

  • Hard, dry stools
  • Infrequent bowel movements
  • Straining during defecation
300

Which nursing intervention helps prevent urinary retention in postoperative patients?

A. Restricting fluids
B. Encouraging voiding every 2–3 hours
C. Providing bedpan only
D. Delaying ambulation

Correct Answer: B. Encouraging voiding every 2–3 hours

Rationale:
Scheduled voiding helps maintain bladder tone and prevents overstretching of the bladder, which can lead to urinary retention.

300

A patient reports difficulty falling asleep. Which nursing assessment question is most appropriate?

A. “Do you take any sleep medications?”
B. “How many hours do you sleep each night?”
C. “What do you usually do before going to bed?”
D. “Have you ever been diagnosed with insomnia?”

 Correct Answer: C. “What do you usually do before going to bed?”

Rationale:
This assesses sleep hygiene, such as caffeine intake, screen use, or exercise, which commonly affects sleep onset.

400

A patient with decreased peripheral circulation is most likely to exhibit which assessment finding?

A. Warm, flushed skin
B. Bounding peripheral pulses
C. Cool, pale extremities
D. Capillary refill under 2 seconds

Correct Answer: C. Cool, pale extremities

Rationale:
Poor circulation leads to vasoconstriction, reducing blood flow to the skin, causing it to be cool and pale.

  • Bounding pulses and warm skin suggest increased blood flow.
  • Normal capillary refill is less than 2 seconds.
400

The Joint Commission requires that THESE patients receive evaluation of spiritual beliefs, needs, preferences. 

Who are patients receiving psychosocial services to treat substance use disorders and those receiving end of life care?

400

A patient receiving opioid analgesics is at risk for constipation primarily because opioids:

A. Increase intestinal secretions
B. Stimulate the gastrocolic reflex
C. Decrease bowel motility
D. Increase smooth muscle contractions

Correct Answer: C. Decrease bowel motility

Rationale:
Opioids slow peristalsis, increase water absorption from stool, and reduce the urge to defecate, leading to constipation.

400

A postoperative patient has not voided for 8 hours and reports suprapubic discomfort. The nurse’s priority action is to:

A. Encourage increased oral fluids
B. Perform a bladder scan
C. Insert a urinary catheter
D. Document normal postoperative findings

Correct Answer: B. Perform a bladder scan

Rationale:
A bladder scan noninvasively assesses urinary retention and guides further intervention. Catheterization is not the first step unless retention is confirmed.

400

During which sleep stage does the body experience the greatest physical restoration, including tissue repair and growth hormone release?

A. Stage N1
B. Stage N2
C. Stage N3 (deep sleep)
D. REM sleep

Correct Answer: C. Stage N3 (deep sleep)

Rationale:

Stage N3, also called deep sleep or slow‑wave sleep, is the most physically restorative stage of the sleep cycle. During this stage:

  • Blood pressure and heart rate decrease
  • Tissue repair occurs
  • Growth hormone is released
  • Immune function is supported

Stages N1 and N2 are lighter stages of sleep and serve primarily as transition and maintenance stages.
REM sleep is important for mental restoration, memory consolidation, and dreaming, not physical repair.

500

A patient with severe anemia presents with fatigue and confusion. Assessment findings include:

  • SpO₂: 97% on room air
  • Hemoglobin: 6.8 g/dL
  • Respiratory rate: 18 breaths/min
  • Skin: pale, cool

Which statement best explains this patient’s condition?

A. The patient is experiencing hypoxemia related to impaired oxygen diffusion.
B. The patient is experiencing hypoxia due to decreased oxygen-carrying capacity.
C. The patient is not experiencing oxygenation problems because SpO₂ is normal.
D. The patient has hypoxemia caused by ventilation–perfusion mismatch.

Correct Answer: B. The patient is experiencing hypoxia due to decreased oxygen-carrying capacity.

Rationale

This question tests a critical distinction:

Hypoxemia

  • Refers to low oxygen levels in the blood
  • Measureable by SpO₂ or PaO₂
  • Common causes: lung disease, V/Q mismatch, hypoventilation, diffusion impairment

Hypoxia

  • Refers to inadequate oxygen delivery to tissues
  • May occur with or without hypoxemia
  • Causes include:
    • Decreased hemoglobin (anemia)
    • Reduced cardiac output
    • Impaired tissue perfusion
    • Cellular inability to use oxygen

Why B is correct:

  • The patient has a normal SpO₂ (97%), meaning oxygen is present in the blood.
  • However, severely low hemoglobin (6.8 g/dL) means there are fewer red blood cells to carry oxygen.
  • This results in tissue hypoxia despite normal oxygen saturation.
  • Confusion and fatigue are classic manifestations of tissue hypoxia.

Why the other options are incorrect:

  • A. Hypoxemia due to impaired diffusion
    ❌ Incorrect — SpO₂ is normal, ruling out hypoxemia.

  • C. No oxygenation problem because SpO₂ is normal
    ❌ Dangerous misconception — SpO₂ does not reflect oxygen delivery, only saturation.

  • D. Hypoxemia from V/Q mismatch
    ❌ Would present with low SpO₂ or PaO₂, which is not seen here.


Clinical Pearl (NCLEX Favorite)


“Hypoxemia is about oxygen in the blood.
Hypoxia is about oxygen in the tissues.”


You can have hypoxia without hypoxemia, especially in:

  • Anemia
  • Shock
  • Carbon monoxide poisoning


500

This is the primary difference between hospice and palliative care. 

What is hospice includes life expectancy of 6 months or less 

500

Which finding most strongly suggests fecal impaction?

A. Liquid stool leakage
B. Abdominal cramping
C. Hyperactive bowel sounds
D. Sudden weight loss

Correct Answer: A. Liquid stool leakage

Rationale:
With fecal impaction, liquid stool may leak around hardened stool, often mistaken for diarrhea. This is a common NCLEX trap.

500

 An older adult patient experiences involuntary urine loss when coughing or sneezing. This is best described as:

A. Urge incontinence
B. Functional incontinence
C. Overflow incontinence
D. Stress incontinence

Correct Answer: D. Stress incontinence

Rationale:
Stress incontinence occurs when increased intra‑abdominal pressure (coughing, sneezing, laughing) causes urine leakage, often due to weakened pelvic floor muscles.

500

A nurse notes that a patient is restless, irritable, and has impaired concentration after several nights of poor sleep. These findings are best explained by which concept?

A. Sleep latency
B. Sleep apnea
C. Sleep deprivation
D. Circadian rhythm entrainment

Correct Answer: C. Sleep deprivation

Rationale:
Sleep deprivation leads to cognitive impairment, mood changes, and reduced coping ability. These symptoms worsen cumulatively over time.

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