Antepartum
intrapartum
FHR Boss Battle
Postpartum
Neonatal & Women's Health
100

A 32-week pregnant client reports headache, visual disturbances, and swelling of hands. BP is 160/110. What is the nurse's first action?

What is- Place the client in the Left lateral position?

100

Oxtyocin is being infused. Contractions occur every 1 minute and last 90 seconds. FHR shows minimal variability and tachycardia. What is the nurse's first action?

What is- Stop the oxytocin infusion?

100

Patient is 39 weeks gestation being assessed for decreased fetal movement. FHRs 140bpm baseline, moderate variability, positive accelerations, no decelerations.

How does the nurse interpret this?

What is- normal/reassuring tracing?

100

A postpartum client has a boggy uterus and heavy lochia rubra. 

What is the nurse's first action?

What is- Massage the uterus?

100

Which medication is routinely given to prevent hemorrhagic disease of the newborn?

What is- Vitamin K?

200
Which findings in pregnancy are danger signs requiring immediate follow-up? Select all that apply.

A) persistent vomiting past the 1st trimester

B) sudden gush of fluid at 30 weeks gestation

C) mild dependent edema at the end of the day

D) decreased fetal movement

E) Braxton Hicks contractions

What is- A, B, D?

200

What are the 5 P's of labor?

What is- Passenger, Passageway, Powers, Position, Psyche?
200

G1P0 at term in active labor. FHRs 130s baseline, moderate variability, neg accels, abrupt decels to 90 bpm with contractions with variable timing. 

What is the nurse's interpretation?

What is- variable decels? 

200

Which is the most common cause of postpartum hemorrhage?

What is- uterine atony?

200

Which glucose value in a newborn requires intervention?

A) 60 mg/dL

B) 55 mg/dL

C) 38 mg/dL

What is- C?

300

A client at 28 weeks has a positive indirect Coombs test and is Rh-negative. The fetus is Rh-positive. Which medication does the nurse expect to administer?

What is- Rho(D) immune globulin (RhoGAM)?

300

The nurse is facilitating the third stage of labor. Which action is expected?

What is- Administration of oxytocin after placental delivery?
300

moderate variable decels to 90 bpm are observed in a laboring patient at term. What is the nurse's first action?

What is- Reposition the client?

300

Risk factors for postpartum infection include: Select all that apply.

A) Prolonged labor

B) Cesarean birth

C) Frequent vaginal exams

D) Early ambulation

What is- A, B, and C?

300

Jaundice appearing in the first 12 hours of life suggests-

What is- Pathologic jaundice?

400

Fundal height at 30 weeks measures 36cm. What should the nurse do next?

What is- Notify the provider for further evaluation?

400

Which pain management option for labor requires continuous fetal monitoring?

What is- epidural anesthesia?
400

37 week patient in transition phase. FHR's 140s baseline, mod variability, positive accels, gradual decelerations that mirror the contractions are observed. What is the nurse's response?

What is- Continue to monitor?

400

A client expresses tearfulness and mood swings 3 days postpartum. How does the nurse interpret this?

What is- Postpartum blues?

400

Which newborn finding at birth is expected?

A) nasal flaring

B) neonatal erythema toxicum

C) acrocyanosis

What is- C?

500

Which assessment finding in a pregnant client with hyperemesis gravidarum is the PRIORITY?

What is- Signs of dehydration? (dry mucous membranes, poor skin tugor)

500

A laboring client develops a uterine rupture risk. What would be the MOST concerning assessment finding?

What is- Sudden fetal bradycardia?

500

40 week patient in active phase of labor. FHRs 140s baseline, absent variability, neg accels, late decels observed. What is the nurse's first action?

What is- Reposition to the laft lateral position?

500

Which finding suggest postpartum thrombophlebitis? Select all that apply.

A) Unilateral leg pain

B) localized warmth

C) afebrile

D) edema at the affected site

What is- A, B, D?

500

Which client is at highest risk for pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)?

A) 18-year-old nulligravida, one sexual partner

B) 28-year-old, G2T2P0A0L2, multiple sexual partners and recent STI

C) 35-year-old, G3T1P1A1L2, multiple sexual partners before current monogamous relationship, neg history of STIs

What is- B?

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