Antipsychotics
Cardiovascular
ANS 1
ANS 2
PD
SZS
Antimicrobials
Antimicrobials
Cancer/CINV
Women's Health/GI
100

Foods containing this compound should be avoided by pts taking MAOIs to prevent a hypertensive crisis. 

What is tyramine? 

(What are examples of tyramine containing foods)

100

In order to reduce the likelihood of developing tolerance to nitroglycerine in patch form, patients should do this. 

What is remove patch overnight or for at least 10-12hrs?

100

Be prepared to administer this medication if a pt develops an anaphylactic reaction to an antibiotic. 

What is epinephrine?

100

Name 2 side effects of a cholinergic agonist 

What are bradycardia, increased gland secretion (sweating, salivation, bronchial secretions), smooth muscle contraction (GI/lungs)?

100

The rapid fluctuation that occurs when the pt is mobile and active one moment and akinetic and rigid the next is known as this and can be minimized by educating the pt to avoid meals high in this.

What is the "on-off" phenomenon and protein?

100

The two benzodiazepines used as first-line treatment of status epilepticus. 

What are lorazepam and diazepam

100

Name 2 side effects of vancomycin. 

What are renal failure, ototoxicity, vancomycin-flyshing syndrome, and thrombophlebitis

100

This is the most severe form of toxicity with clindamycin. 

What is C.diff-associated diarrhea?

100

This antiemetic is most effective at treating CINV and should be administered 30 minutes to 3 hours before chemotherapy. 

What is ondansetron [Zofran]?

100

Name at least 2 of the most effective forms of birth control. 

What are subdermal implants [Nexplanon], IM medroxyprogesterone acetate [Depo-Provera], sterilization, and IUDs?

(Why are these so effective?)

200

The atypical antidepressant that doesn't cause weight gain or sexual dysfunction. 

What is bupropion [Wellbutrin]?

200

The electrolyte imbalance that can be seen in patients taking furosemide [Lasix]. 

What is hypokalemia?

(If a pt were then prescribed this HF medication, the RN would be concerned)

200

This muscarinic agonist is the most effective medication for the treatment/prevention of motion sickness. 

What is scopolamine?

200

Name 2 side effects of an adrenergic agonist 

What are tachycardia, dry mouth, constipation, mydriasis, dry eyes, smooth muscle relaxation (bronchi/GI)?

200

A concerning adverse effect of pramipexole treatment is this phenomenon, made especially dangerous during inherently hazardous activities. 

What are sleep attacks?

200

Phenytoin IV should never be mixed with this fluid type. 

What are dextrose-containing fluids? 

(What are other considerations for IV infusion?)

200

The lowest level of drug concentration in the plasma and must be monitored to prevent toxicity.

What is the trough? 

200

When patients are on this antibiotic combination, they are encouraged to drink 8-10 glasses of water daily. 

What is trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole (Bactrim)?

200

A side effect of chemotherapy includes this reduction of specific circulating cells that puts the pt at risk for developing a fatal infection. 

What is neutropenia? 
200

Infliximab is a monoclonal antibody used to treat this GI disorder. 

What is IBD (Crohn's or UC)?

300

The medication class used to treat acute dystonia in patients taking FGAs. 

What is anticholinergic?

300

A common side effect seen with antihypertensive medications that can be treated with a phosphodiesterase-5 inhibitors. 

What is erectile dysfunction?

300

Both malignant hyperthermia treatment and neuroleptic malignant syndrome are treated with this medication. 

What is dantrolene?

300

Name 1 side effect of neuromuscular blockers.

What is paralysis?

300

What neurotransmitter does levodopa convert to in the brain to improve movement in pts with PD?

What is dopamine?

300

An adverse effect of oxcarbazepine administration includes this electrolyte imbalance. 

What is hyponatremia?


300

An adverse effect of this medication class is tendon rupture.

What are fluroquinolones?

300

To minimize interference with absorption, this class of antibiotics should be administered at least 1 hour before or 2 hours after ingestion of chelating agents.


What are tetracyclines?

(What are examples of chelating agents?)

300

True or false: patients undergoing chemotherapy should be encouraged to receive the live MMR booster to prevent illness

What is false?

300

These risks are increased with estrogen-progestin hormone replacement therapy. 

What are DVT, stroke, pulmonary embolism, dementia, breast cancer?

400

Pts taking SSRIs can develop this condition that is associated with AMS, hyperreflexia, and excessive sweating. 

What is serotonin syndrome?

400

This type of hypertension is treated with lifelong medication administration. 

What is primary HTN?

400

The division of the autonomic nervous system that is associated with the "rest/digest" response. 

What is parasympathetic?

400

Name 2 side effects of cholinesterase inhibitors. 

What is increased skeletal muscle contraction, bradycardia, bronchial constriction, urinary urgency, increased glandular secretions, increased tone/motility of GI tract, miosis?

400

Signs and symptoms of this include involuntary movements of the face, arms, legs and trunk. 

What is dyskinesia?

400

The antiepileptic medication that is affected by grapefruit juice.  

What is carbamazepine? 

400

Name 2 adverse effects of treatment with sulfonamides.

What are crystalluria, Stevens-Johnson syndrome, kernicterus, blood dyscrasias?

400

Anti-TB medication that can cause peripheral neuropathy (which can be prevented by co-administration of vitamin B6).

What is isoniazid? 

400

The term used for the lowest neutrophil count a patient receiving chemo usually experiences 10-14 days after therapy. 

What is nadir?

400

The therapeutic effect of sulfasalazine for IBD treatment. 

What is inflammation reduction?

500

The preferred mood stabilizer used for acute management of manic episodes of BPD. 

What is lithium?

500

Name 2 therapeutic uses for non-dihydropyridine CCBs, like verapamil. 

What are angina, HTN, cardiac dysrhythmias?

500

Contraindications and cautions to use of this specific adrenergic antagonist class include sinus bradycardia, AV heart block, and asthma. 

What are non-selective beta-blockers?

500

This specific adrenergic antagonist is utilized for pts after MI because of its cardioprotective properties. 

What is metoprolol [Lopressor]?

500

PD is characterized by an imbalance of these two neurotransmitters. 

What are acetylcholine and dopamine? 
500

Name at least 1 way to enhance medication regimen adherence for epileptic patients. 

What are reinforcing need to take meds as prescribed (chronic), maintain seizure frequency diary, monitor plasma drug levels?

500

The two systems most affected by toxicity with aminoglycosides. 

What are auditory and renal?

500

The two major concerns associated with the administration of amphotericin B. 

What are infusion reactions and nephrotoxicity?

500

Pain medication class that is contraindicated for patients undergoing chemotherapy. 

What are NSAIDs?

500

These are the two forms of inflammatory bowel disease.

What are Crohn's disease and ulcerative colitis? 

600

The lethal dose of this class of antidepressants is only eight times the average therapeutic dose. 

What are TCAs?

600

The antihypertensive medication class that is associated with a persistent cough. 

What are ACE inhibitors?

600

Adrenergic agonists are used in the treatment of shock because they have this therapeutic effect. 

What is increase BP?

600

Vecuronium must also be combined with these two medication classes.

What are anesthetics and analgesics?

600

This is an expected and non-concerning side effect of levodopa regarding specific body fluids. 

What is darken sweat and urine?

600

This drug class should be avoided in patients taking phenytoin to prevent oversedation. 

What are CNS depressants (alcohol, barbiturates, etc.)?

600

Mixing alcohol with this class of antibiotics can induce a state of alcohol intolerance that may lead to a disculiram-like reaction. 

What are cephalosporins?

600

Antibiotic often reserved for severe MRSA infections. 

What is vancomycin?

600

Many patients whose pain is well controlled most of the day experience transient episodes of moderate to severe pain, known as this. 

What is breakthrough pain?

600
The endogenous hormone that has a positive effect on bone mass. 

What is estrogen?

700

Indications for benzodiazepine use include these two conditions. 

What are anxiety and insomnia? 

700

Risk for developing hyperkalemia is associated with this diuretic. 

What is spironolactone? 

700

"Can't see, can't pee, can't spit, can't s**t" helps you remember this grouping of adverse effects. 

What are anticholinergic side effects?

700

This class of medication is the mainstay treatment of myasthenia gravis. 

What are cholinesterase inhibitors?

(Why?)

700

Type of cancer that can be exacerbated by levodopa/carbidopa. 

What is malignant melanoma?

700

Patients should be advised that the benefits of these 2 medications are significantly reduced with antiepileptic medications. 

What are oral contraceptives and warfarin?

700

With an immunocompromised patient with an active infection, in general, which antimicrobial agent type must be used?

What are bactericidal antibiotics? 

700

These agents should be administered at least 6 hours before ciprofloxacin or 2 hours after.

What are cationic? 

700

Name 2 example of common side effects of chemotherapy. 

What are alopecia, N/V/D, stomatitis, myelosuppression?

700
Uterine stimulant used to promote contractions in labor. 

What is oxytocin [Pitocin]?

800

FGAs can cause this adverse effect, characterized by muscle rigidity, sudden high fever, sweating, and autonomic instability. 

What is neuroleptic malignant syndrome? 

800

The definition of "positive inotropic effect."

What is increased force of contaction?

800

Urge incontinence associated with overactive bladder can be treated with this muscarinic antagonist. 

What is oxybutynin [Ditropan]?
800

Orthostatic hypotension in a pt with BPH is likely caused by their medication from this class. 

What is an alpha-1 blocker?

800

This medication can be added to levodopa/carbidopa to further decrease levodopa induced N/V. 

What is additional carbidopa?

800

The oral adverse effect of phenytoin. 

What is gingival hyperplasia? 

800

The antibiotic class that is contraindicated for pregnant and pediatric pts under the age of 8. 

Why?

What are tetracyclines? 

Avoid tooth discoloration

800
The 2 lab values that determine efficacy of antiretroviral therapy for patients with HIV. 

What are CD4 count and viral plasma load?

800

The RN is concerned about these 3 when an oncology patient reports NEW pain in a NEW location. 

What are infection, metastasis, or fracture? 

800

Name two side effects associated with administration of nifedipine to cause uterine relaxation. 

What are transient tachycardia, facial flushing, headache, dizziness, nausea, hypotension?

900

The volume of haloperidol needed for pt w/ schizophrenia

Ordered: 75mg IM

Available: 50mg/mL

What is 1.5mL?

900

Order: digoxin (Lanoxin) 18 mcg PO BID. Child weighs 7 lbs

Safe range: 10-12 mcg/kg/24 hrs

Is it safe? 

What is yes? (31.8-38.2mcg/24 hrs)

900

The volume of atropine to be administered

Order: atropine (Atreza) 0.3 mg IM stat 

Available: atropine (Atreza) 0.4 mg per mL

What is 0.75 mL?

900

The rate to infuse epinephrine 

Ordered: epinephrine 8mcg/min

Available: 1mg/250ml

What is 120 ml/hr?

900

The total number of levodopa tablets in 1 day

Ordered: 350mg levodopa TID

Available: 100mg/tablet

What is 10.5 tablets?

900

The total dosage for loading dose of phenytoin for a pt weighing 264lbs

Ordered: 15mg/kg



What is 1800mg?

900

Order: cephalexin 0.5g PO QID

Available: cephalexin 250mg tablets

How many tablets per day?

What is 8 tablets?

900

The rate to administer clindamycin (Cleocin) IV at a rate of 10 mg/min. 

Available: clindamycin (Cleocin) 900 mg in 100 mL NS.

What is 66.67 ml/hr?

900

The rate to infuse:

Order: aminophylline (Theophylline) 0.7 mg/kg/hr. Weight = 73.5 kg. 

Available: aminophylline (Theophylline) 800 mg in 500 mL D5W

What is 32.2 ml/hr?

900

The rate to infuse cimetidine (Tagamet) 300 mg IVPB mixed in 100 mL NS (0.9% Normal Saline) over 45 minutes.

What is rate of 133.3 ml/hr?

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