Acid-Base Balance
Which of the following ABG values indicates metabolic acidosis?
A. pH 7.48, PaCO2 42 mmHg, HCO3 28 mEq/L
B. pH 7.32, PaCO2 38 mmHg, HCO3 18 mEq/L
C. pH 7.50, PaCO2 28 mmHg, HCO3 23 mEq/L
D. pH 7.D. pH 7.35, PaCO2 45 mmHg, HCO3 24 mEq/L
Correct answer: B
Explanation: Metabolic acidosis is indicated by low pH and low bicarbonate. The ABG in option B reflects these values, suggesting an acidic environment due to a deficit in bicarbonate.
Etiologic Factors of Cancer What is the most common type of gene mutation involved in the development of cancer?
A. Point mutations
B. Frameshift mutations
C. Chromosomal translocations
D. Gene duplications
A. Point mutations
Explanation: Point mutations involve changes to a single nucleotide and are a common cause of gene alterations in cancer. They can lead to oncogene activation or tumor suppressor gene inactivation, both contributing to cancer development.
A nursing student is assessing a patient with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Which of the following symptoms indicates a worsening condition?
A. Wheezing and shortness of breath
B. Productive cough and cyanosis
C. Use of accessory muscles to breathe
D. All of the above
D. All of the above
Explanation: All these symptoms are associated with worsening COPD, indicating respiratory distress or failure. Wheezing and shortness of breath indicate airway obstruction, a productive cough suggests chronic bronchitis, and the use of accessory muscles indicates increased respiratory effort.
Which physiological process best exemplifies a positive feedback mechanism?
A. Correction of homeostasis by insulin
B. Increased estradiol production causing increased follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) production
C. Parathyroid hormone increasing calcium levels
D. High blood glucose stimulating insulin secretion
B - A positive feedback mechanism involves a rising level of a hormone causing further hormonal release, as seen in the case of increased estradiol production leading to more FSH.
Question: What is the primary role of neutrophils in the inflammatory response?
A. Phagocytosis
B. Antibody production
C. Cytokine production
D. Antigen presentation
A. Phagocytosis
Explanation: Neutrophils are white blood cells primarily responsible for phagocytosis, a process where they ingest and destroy pathogens or debris during inflammation. Other cells such as B cells produce antibodies, while T cells are involved in cell-mediated immunity.
What is the primary purpose of the inflammatory process during an infection?
A. To provide immediate elimination of the pathogen
B. To induce chronic symptoms
C. To initiate tissue repair and pathogen isolation
D. To reduce the immune response to prevent damage
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The inflammatory process isolates the infected area and begins tissue repair, besides recruiting immune cells to the site of infection.
Question: Which of the following statements describes the body's response during the Resistance stage of Selye's General Adaptation Syndrome?
A. The fight-or-flight response is activated.
B. The body adapts to ongoing stress.
C. The body's resources are depleted.
D. The immune system is suppressed.
B - The Resistance stage of Selye's General Adaptation Syndrome involves the body's adaptation to ongoing stress. This stage signifies an effort to cope with stress while maintaining normal functioning. Other stages either deplete resources (Exhaustion) or activate the fight-or-flight response (Alarm).
A nurse is assessing a patient with suspected respiratory acidosis. Which of the following signs and symptoms is the nurse likely to find?
A. Hyperventilation, tachycardia, confusion
B. Hypoventilation, hyperkalemia, dizziness
C. Tachycardia, hypokalemia, muscle twitching
D. Seizures, tachypnea, hyperreflexia
Correct answer: B
Explanation: Respiratory acidosis is characterized by hypoventilation and a buildup of CO2, leading to hyperkalemia and dizziness among other symptoms.
Characteristics of Malignant Cancer Cells What is a defining feature of malignant cancer cells compared to normal healthy cells?
A. Limited proliferation capacity
B. Controlled cell growth
C. Ability to invade surrounding tissues
D. High differentiation level
C. Ability to invade surrounding tissues
Explanation: Malignant cancer cells can invade and spread to surrounding tissues, a defining characteristic that distinguishes them from normal cells and benign tumors.
A patient with a history of pulmonary embolism (PE) reports sudden chest pain and shortness of breath. What is the most likely cause of these symptoms?
A. Another pulmonary embolism
B. Myocardial infarction
C. Pneumonia
D. Asthma attack
A. Another pulmonary embolism
Explanation: Sudden chest pain and shortness of breath are common signs of a pulmonary embolism. This condition results from a blood clot obstructing pulmonary arteries, impairing gas exchange.
A client has been diagnosed with dysfunction of the anterior pituitary gland. Which hormones will likely be affected?
A. Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)
B. Luteinizing hormone (LH)
C. Antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
D. Prolactin (PRL)
A, B, D - The anterior pituitary gland produces ACTH, LH, and PRL, among others.
Question: Which of the following is a cardinal sign of inflammation?
A. Cyanosis
B. Paresthesia
C. Erythema
D. Jaundice
C. Erythema
Explanation: Erythema (redness) is one of the cardinal signs of inflammation, along with heat, pain, swelling, and loss of function. Cyanosis, paresthesia, and jaundice are not commonly associated with inflammation.
A nurse is assessing a patient suspected of having septicemia. Which lab test is crucial for confirming this diagnosis?
A. Complete blood count
B. Liver function tests
C. Lipid panel
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: A complete blood count is crucial in diagnosing septicemia, as it can reveal elevated white blood cell counts indicative of infection.
Question: What is the primary characteristic of Type II hypersensitivity reactions?
A. Delayed response involving T cells.
B. Cell destruction due to antibody-mediated cytotoxicity.
C. Deposition of immune complexes in tissues.
D. Immediate response involving IgE.
B - Type II hypersensitivity reactions occur when antibodies mediate cytotoxicity, leading to cell destruction. This is distinct from other hypersensitivity types, such as Type I (immediate response) and Type IV (delayed response involving T cells).
What is the most likely cause of respiratory alkalosis?
A. Severe diarrhea
B. Hyperventilation due to anxiety
C. Diabetic ketoacidosis
D. Acute renal failure
Correct answer: B
Explanation: Respiratory alkalosis typically occurs due to hyperventilation, often caused by anxiety or panic.
Genetics and Cancer Which type of gene mutation is most commonly associated with hereditary cancer syndromes?
A. Germ-line mutations
B. Somatic mutations
C. Epigenetic changes
D. Frameshift mutations
A. Germ-line mutations
Explanation: Germ-line mutations are inherited gene alterations that can increase susceptibility to cancer. These mutations are present in the reproductive cells and can be passed on to the next generation.
An elderly patient with a history of iron deficiency anemia is showing signs of fatigue and pale skin. What would be an appropriate nursing intervention?
A. Administer oxygen therapy
B. Monitor hemoglobin levels and suggest iron-rich foods
C. Check blood glucose levels
D. Assess for symptoms of COPD
B. Monitor hemoglobin levels and suggest iron-rich foods
Explanation: In cases of iron deficiency anemia, monitoring hemoglobin levels and suggesting iron-rich foods are crucial. Iron supplements or dietary changes help restore hemoglobin levels, alleviating fatigue and other symptoms.
A nurse is teaching a client who has been newly diagnosed with hypothyroidism about the function of the thyroid. Which statement about the role of the thyroid gland is most accurate?
A. The thyroid gland is responsible for regulating blood pressure
B. The thyroid gland is responsible for increasing the metabolic rate
C. The thyroid gland is responsible for controlling fluid balance
D. The thyroid gland is responsible for maintaining blood glucose levels
B - The thyroid gland is responsible for increasing the metabolic rate through the production of thyroid hormones T3 and T4.
Question: What is the primary purpose of the inflammatory response in the body?
A. To protect against pathogens
B. To facilitate wound healing
C. To eliminate damaged tissue
D. All of the above
D. All of the above
Explanation: The inflammatory response serves multiple purposes: protecting against pathogens, facilitating wound healing, and eliminating damaged tissue. These processes collectively aid in the body's response to injury or infection.
Which type of pathogen is most likely to be resistant to standard antibiotic therapy?
A. Bacteria
B. Viruses
C. Fungi
D. Parasites
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Viruses are typically resistant to antibiotics, which are effective against bacteria but not against viruses, requiring antiviral agents.
Question: Which lifestyle modification is most effective for managing hypertension?
A. Increasing sodium intake.
B. Consuming a high-fat diet.
C. Regular physical activity.
D. Quitting smoking.
C - Regular physical activity is among the most effective lifestyle modifications for managing hypertension. It helps reduce blood pressure and improve cardiovascular health.
Which ABG results indicate partial compensation for metabolic alkalosis?
A. pH 7.47, PaCO2 48 mmHg, HCO3 30 mEq/L
B. pH 7.33, PaCO2 25 mmHg, HCO3 20 mEq/L
C. pH 7.28, PaCO2 40 mmHg, HCO3 17 mEq/L
D. pH 7.36, PaCO2 45 mmHg, HCO3 26 mEq/L
Correct answer: A
Explanation: Partial compensation for metabolic alkalosis results in elevated PaCO2 as the respiratory system tries to retain CO2 to compensate for the high bicarbonate levels.
Cellular Adaptations Which cellular adaptation is characterized by an increase in cell number due to increased stimulation?
A. Hypertrophy
B. Hyperplasia
C. Atrophy
D. Metaplasia
B. Hyperplasia
Explanation: Hyperplasia is an increase in cell number due to increased demand or stimulation. It is a common response to hormonal changes or chronic irritation.
During a respiratory assessment, a nursing student observes that a patient's ventilation-to-perfusion ratio (V-Q ratio) is abnormal. Which condition might this indicate?
A. Pulmonary embolism
B. Iron deficiency anemia
C. Chronic bronchitis
D. Pulmonary fibrosis
A. Pulmonary embolism
Explanation: An abnormal ventilation-to-perfusion ratio (V-Q ratio) can indicate a condition like a pulmonary embolism, where ventilation and perfusion are mismatched due to a blood clot obstructing the pulmonary arteries.
A client undergoing an evaluation of hormone levels asks, "What regulates the hormone levels?" Which response by the nurse would be considered most accurate?
A. Exogenous forms of hormones
B. The hypophyseal portal system
C. The hypothalamic-pituitary-target cell system
D. Cytokines
C - The hypothalamic-pituitary-target cell system regulates many hormones in the body.
Question: During inflammation, which type of immune cells are primarily responsible for producing antibodies?
A. Neutrophils
B. B cells
C. T cells
D. Monocytes
B. B cells
Explanation: B cells are responsible for antibody production, a critical component of the immune response. Neutrophils are primarily involved in phagocytosis, T cells are part of cell-mediated immunity, and monocytes can differentiate into macrophages.
When educating about the Chain of Infection, which is the best strategy to prevent the mode of transmission through indirect contact?
A. Hand hygiene
B. Vaccination
C. Using personal protective equipment (PPE)
D. Antimicrobial therapy
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Hand hygiene is the most effective method to prevent indirect transmission of infections through contaminated surfaces.
Question: What is the primary treatment for an anaphylactic reaction?
A. Oral antihistamines.
B. High-flow oxygen via nasal cannula.
C. Intramuscular epinephrine.
D. Intravenous corticosteroids.
C - Intramuscular epinephrine is the primary treatment for anaphylactic reactions, providing a rapid counteraction to severe allergic responses. Oral antihistamines or intravenous corticosteroids are slower-acting, making them unsuitable for acute emergencies
What role does the renal buffer system play in acid-base balance?
A. It reacts within seconds in response to hydrogen ion concentration
B. It regulates pH through generating buffering agents and eliminating acids and bases
C. It reacts within minutes by changing the respiratory rate
D. It stabilizes the potassium/hydrogen exchange
Correct answer: B
Explanation: The renal buffer system plays a significant role in acid-base balance by regulating pH through buffering agents and elimination of acids and bases.
Tumor Suppressor Genes What is the primary function of tumor suppressor genes?
A. Promote cell division
B. Repair DNA damage
C. Control cell growth and division
D. Activate oncogenes
C. Control cell growth and division
Explanation: Tumor suppressor genes regulate cell growth and division, preventing uncontrolled proliferation. Mutations in these genes can lead to the loss of cell cycle control and contribute to cancer development.
A nursing student learns about the role of hemoglobin in oxygen transport. Which of the following best describes this role?
A. Hemoglobin binds with oxygen in the lungs and releases it to tissues
B. Hemoglobin binds with carbon dioxide and transports it to tissues
C. Hemoglobin carries oxygen and carbon dioxide in the blood
D. Hemoglobin stimulates the production of red blood cells
A. Hemoglobin binds with oxygen in the lungs and releases it to tissues
Explanation: Hemoglobin's primary role is to bind with oxygen in the lungs and release it to tissues, facilitating oxygen transport. It does not stimulate red blood cell production; that's the role of erythropoietin.
Which diagnostic test involves the introduction of a stimulating element to measure hormone response?
A. Stimulation test
B. Suppression test
C. Radioimmunoassay test
D. Metabolite excretion test
A - A stimulation test introduces an element that stimulates the production of a hormone to measure the body's response.
Question: What type of exudate is most likely present in acute inflammation?
A. Serous
B. Hemorrhagic
C. Fibrinous
D. Purulent
D. Purulent
Explanation: Purulent exudate contains pus, a common feature of acute inflammation due to a high presence of neutrophils and dead cell debris. Other types of exudates like serous, hemorrhagic, and fibrinous may also occur but are less characteristic of acute inflammation.
Identify a common reservoir for the influenza virus that can lead to seasonal flu outbreaks.
A. Contaminated food
B. Infected humans
C. Stagnant water
D. Insects
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Infected humans are the primary reservoir for influenza viruses, facilitating person-to-person spread, especially during seasonal outbreaks.
Question: Which of the following is an example of active acquired immunity?
A. Transfer of antibodies through breast milk.
B. Vaccination.
C. Injection of immune globulin.
D. Receiving an organ transplant.
B - Vaccination represents active acquired immunity, where exposure to antigens prompts the immune system to generate memory cells. Passive immunity (e.g., antibodies from breast milk) differs from active immunity, which involves building an immune response.
A patient presents with an ABG showing pH 7.48, PaCO2 30 mmHg, and HCO3 24 mEq/L. What is the most likely condition?
A. Metabolic acidosis
B. Respiratory alkalosis
C. Metabolic alkalosis
D. Respiratory acidosis
Correct answer: B
Explanation: Respiratory alkalosis is typically indicated by a high pH, low PaCO2, and normal bicarbonate. This ABG pattern suggests hyperventilation or other causes of low CO2 levels
Environmental Factors and Cancer Risk Which environmental factor is considered a major contributor to cancer development?
A. Radiation
B. Ultraviolet (UV) rays
C. Tobacco smoke
D. All of the above
D. All of the above
Explanation: Environmental factors like radiation, UV rays, and tobacco smoke are known carcinogens that can contribute to cancer development by causing DNA damage or promoting conditions conducive to cancer.
A patient with COPD is prescribed oxygen therapy. What precaution should a nurse take when administering oxygen to this patient?
A. Avoid administering high doses of oxygen
B. Administer oxygen through a nasal cannula only
C. Increase oxygen flow during periods of hypoxia
D. Monitor for signs of oxygen-induced hypercapnia
A. Avoid administering high doses of oxygen
Explanation: Patients with COPD can experience oxygen-induced hypercapnia when administered high doses of oxygen, which can suppress their respiratory drive. Nurses should be cautious and administer oxygen therapy at safe levels.
The nurse administers a glucocorticoid medication to a client with pneumonia. What is the goal of the medication?
A. To decrease airway inflammation
B. To increase appetite
C. To boost the immune response
D. To regulate blood glucose levels
A - Glucocorticoid medication is used to decrease inflammation, particularly in conditions like pneumonia.
Which mediator is most commonly associated with vasodilation during inflammation?
A. Histamine
B. Prostaglandins
C. Leukotrienes
D. Cytokines
A. Histamine
Explanation: Histamine is a key mediator in the inflammatory response that causes vasodilation, leading to increased blood flow to the affected area. Prostaglandins and leukotrienes also play roles in inflammation, but histamine is primarily associated with vasodilation.
In the context of urinary tract infections (UTIs), which organism is most frequently implicated as the causative agent?
A. Escherichia coli
B. Staphylococcus saprophyticus
C. Candida albicans
D. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Escherichia coli is responsible for the majority of UTIs, particularly those involving the lower urinary tract.
Question: What characterizes asthma from a pathophysiological perspective?
A. Reduced eosinophil activity.
B. Decreased airway inflammation.
C. Elevated levels of suppressor T cells.
D. Increased airway responsiveness to triggers.
D - Asthma is characterized by increased airway responsiveness to various triggers, leading to airway inflammation and constriction. Other incorrect answers suggest reduced activity (e.g., eosinophils, suppressor T cells) or decreased inflammation, which do not represent asthma's pathology.
Which of the following is NOT a buffer system in acid-base balance?
A. Bicarbonate buffer system
B. Renal buffer system
C. Respiratory buffer system
D. Carbonate buffer system
Correct answer: D
Explanation: The carbonate buffer system is not typically mentioned as a key buffer system for acid-base balance, while the other options are core components of the buffer system.
Carcinogenesis Process What is the correct sequence of events leading to cancer development?
A. Initiation, Promotion, Progression
B. Mutation, Progression, Initiation
C. Progression, Mutation, Initiation
D. Initiation, Progression, Promotion
A. Initiation, Promotion, Progression
Explanation: Carcinogenesis typically follows a multi-step process, with initiation representing the initial genetic mutation, promotion involving the proliferation of altered cells, and progression leading to invasive cancer development.
A nursing student is asked to identify signs of compromised gas exchange in a patient. Which of the following symptoms would be most indicative of this condition?
A. Cyanosis and shortness of breath
B. Increased blood pressure and heart rate
C. Nausea and dizziness
D. Loss of appetite and weight loss
A. Cyanosis and shortness of breath
Explanation: These symptoms are indicative of compromised gas exchange. Cyanosis reflects reduced oxygen levels in the blood, while shortness of breath suggests respiratory distress or failure.
A client with a history of brain tumors expresses concern to the health care provider about whether she will be able to breast-feed her infant. Which physiological function of the pituitary gland facilitates breast milk production?
A. Oxytocin
B. Prolactin
C. Growth hormone
D. Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)
B - Prolactin, produced by the anterior pituitary, is responsible for breast growth and milk production.
Question: What is the role of macrophages in the inflammatory response?
A. Phagocytosis and antigen presentation
B. Antibody production
C. Release of histamine
D. Recruitment of neutrophils
A. Phagocytosis and antigen presentation
Explanation: Macrophages are large phagocytic cells that engulf and destroy pathogens. They also play a role in antigen presentation, which is crucial for activating other immune cells. Antibody production is associated with B cells, and neutrophil recruitment can be influenced by other factors.
Which symptom is most indicative of pneumonia caused by bacterial infection?
A. Wheezing
B. High fever and chills
C. Sore throat
D. Nasal congestion
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: High fever and chills are more typical of bacterial pneumonia, as bacterial infections tend to provoke a more intense inflammatory response.
Question: What is the best course of action for a patient with Stage I hypertension?
A. Pharmacological treatment and lifestyle modifications.
B. Immediate hospitalization for observation.
C. Only diet modifications without medication.
D. No treatment is needed.
A - For patients with Stage I hypertension, the best course of action is pharmacological treatment combined with lifestyle modifications. This approach targets the elevated blood pressure while addressing risk factors through diet and exercise.
A patient with metabolic acidosis is likely to exhibit which of the following?
A. Hyperventilation, flushed skin, decreased pH
B. Hypoventilation, pallor, increased pH
C. Tachycardia, confusion, increased bicarbonate
D. Hyperkalemia, shallow breathing, decreased PaCO2
Correct answer: A
Explanation: Metabolic acidosis leads to hyperventilation, flushed skin, and decreased pH due to an increase in hydrogen ions.
Gene Regulation and Cancer What is the term used to describe the process of gene expression alteration without changes to the DNA sequence?
A. Transcription
B. Epigenetics
C. Translation
D. Mutations
B. Epigenetics
Explanation: Epigenetics refers to heritable changes in gene expression that do involve alterations to the DNA sequence. These changes can influence how cells read genes, affecting gene regulation and potentially contributing to cancer development.
A patient with a history of pulmonary embolism is prescribed anticoagulants. What is the primary goal of this medication?
A. Dissolve existing blood clots
B. Prevent further clot formation
C. Reduce blood pressure
D. Increase blood flow to the lungs
B. Prevent further clot formation
Explanation: Anticoagulants are used to prevent further clot formation in patients with pulmonary embolism, reducing the risk of additional complications. These medications do not dissolve existing clots, but they prevent new clots from forming.
The nurse is performing an assessment for a client with untreated hyperthyroidism. What is the expected finding when obtaining vital signs?
A. Blood pressure 180/110 mm Hg
B. Heart rate 110 and bounding
C. Body temperature 37.0°C
D. Respiratory rate 12/min
B - In hyperthyroidism, cardiovascular and respiratory functions are affected, leading to increased heart rate and bounding pulse.
Which of the following is an effect of the release of cytokines during inflammation?
A. Increased vascular permeability
B. Decreased blood flow
C. Decreased body temperature
D. Inhibition of immune response
A. Increased vascular permeability
Explanation: Cytokines, such as interleukins, are signaling proteins that can increase vascular permeability during inflammation, allowing immune cells to move into the affected tissue. Decreased blood flow and body temperature are not typical effects of cytokine release.
A public health nurse is implementing a campaign to reduce the incidence of malaria. Which intervention targets the reservoir in the Chain of Infection?
A. Use of bed nets treated with insecticide
B. Antibiotic distribution
C. Hand washing campaigns
D. Public health education on symptoms
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Using insecticide-treated bed nets targets the mosquito vector, reducing the reservoir for malaria transmission.
Question: Which class of medication is commonly used to treat hypertension?
A. NSAIDs.
B. ACE inhibitors.
C. Diuretics.
D. Antihistamines.
B - ACE inhibitors are commonly used to treat hypertension by relaxing blood vessels and reducing blood pressure. Other medications like NSAIDs and antihistamines do not specifically address hypertension management.
Which of the following is a common cause of metabolic alkalosis?
A. Severe vomiting
B. Diabetic ketoacidosis
C. Respiratory depression
D. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)
Correct answer: A
Explanation: Metabolic alkalosis is often caused by excessive vomiting, leading to a loss of hydrogen ions and an increase in bicarbonate.
Characteristics of Benign Tumors Which characteristic differentiates benign tumors from malignant ones?
A. Benign tumors are encapsulated
B. Benign tumors have uncontrolled growth
C. Benign tumors can invade other tissues
D. Benign tumors metastasize through the lymphatic system
A. Benign tumors are encapsulated
Explanation: Benign tumors are often encapsulated, preventing them from invading other tissues, unlike malignant tumors which can spread and metastasize.
A nursing student is asked to describe the mechanical process of ventilation. Which of the following best explains this process?
A. The movement of air into and out of the lungs
B. The delivery of blood to the lung alveoli
C. The exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide between alveoli and capillaries
D. The transport of oxygen and carbon dioxide in the blood
A. The movement of air into and out of the lungs
Explanation: Ventilation involves the mechanical process of air movement into and out of the lungs, facilitating gas exchange with the blood. This process is critical for maintaining adequate oxygen and carbon dioxide levels.
A client has been diagnosed with myxedema and is experiencing bradycardia, voice changes, and an enlarged tongue. Which treatment modality is most likely to benefit this client?
A. Beta-adrenergic blocking drugs
B. Synthetic preparations of T3 or T4
C. Antithyroid drugs
D. Adrenal cortical function treatments
B - Synthetic preparations of T3 or T4 are used to treat hypothyroidism and associated myxedema.
Question: What is the term used to describe the migration of leukocytes to the site of inflammation?
A. Diapedesis
B. Chemotaxis
C. Phagocytosis
D. Extravasation
A. Diapedesis
Explanation: Diapedesis is the process by which leukocytes migrate through blood vessel walls to reach the site of inflammation. Chemotaxis refers to the chemical signaling that guides this migration. Phagocytosis is the engulfing of pathogens, and extravasation refers to the leakage of fluid from the blood vessels.
Which intervention is primarily used to manage an acute episode of pyelonephritis?
A. Corticosteroids
B. Antihypertensive medications
C. Antibiotics
D. Antiviral medications
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Antibiotics are the primary treatment for pyelonephritis, typically bacterial in origin.
Question: What diagnostic test is most helpful in confirming a diagnosis of asthma?
A. Pulmonary Function Tests (PFTs).
B. Complete blood count (CBC).
C. Blood glucose monitoring.
D. Electrocardiogram (EKG).
A - Pulmonary Function Tests (PFTs) are the most helpful diagnostic test for confirming asthma. PFTs assess airway obstruction and response to bronchodilators, providing essential information for diagnosis. CBC and EKG are less useful for diagnosing asthma.
Which ABG results indicate partial compensation for respiratory acidosis?
A. pH 7.32, PaCO2 55 mmHg, HCO3 28 mEq/L
B. pH 7.28, PaCO2 38 mmHg, HCO3 18 mEq/L
C. pH 7.45, PaCO2 25 mmHg, HCO3 30 mEq/L
D. pH 7.40, PaCO2 45 mmHg, HCO3 24 mEq/L
Correct answer: A
Explanation: Partial compensation for respiratory acidosis occurs when there is a low pH with high PaCO2 and elevated bicarbonate due to compensatory mechanisms.
Genetic Screening in Cancer What is the primary purpose of genetic screening in cancer care?
A. To identify environmental risk factors for cancer
B. To detect inherited gene mutations associated with cancer
C. To monitor tumor progression in cancer patients
D. To guide chemotherapy treatment options
B. To detect inherited gene mutations associated with cancer
Explanation: Genetic screening is used to identify inherited gene mutations that may increase the risk of developing cancer, allowing for early detection and preventive measures
An adult patient has difficulty breathing due to narrowing of the airways. Which of the following conditions might cause this issue?
A. Chronic bronchitis
B. Iron deficiency anemia
C. Pulmonary embolism
D. Hemoptysis
A. Chronic bronchitis
Explanation: Chronic bronchitis leads to narrowing of the airways due to inflammation and mucus production, causing airflow obstruction and difficulty breathing. Conditions like iron deficiency anemia and pulmonary embolism do not cause airway narrowing.
When describing to a client newly diagnosed with diabetes how insulin is regulated, which hormonal regulation mechanism will the nurse likely refer to?
A. The hypothalamic–pituitary–target cell system
B. The hypophyseal portal system
C. Positive feedback control
D. Endogenous forms of hormones
A - Insulin is regulated by feedback mechanisms involving the hypothalamic–pituitary–target cell system.
Question: Which type of inflammation is typically associated with chronic conditions?
A. Acute inflammation
B. Chronic inflammation
C. Subacute inflammation
D. Intermittent inflammation
B. Chronic inflammation
Explanation: Chronic inflammation is typically associated with long-lasting conditions such as autoimmune diseases or persistent infections. Acute inflammation is a rapid and intense response to injury or infection. Subacute and intermittent inflammation are less commonly used terms and not typically associated with chronic conditions.
A patient with a suspected fungal infection has a sample taken for culture. Which growth medium is most suitable for identifying fungal pathogens?
A. Blood agar
B. MacConkey agar
C. Sabouraud dextrose agar
D. Hektoen enteric agar
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Sabouraud dextrose agar is specially formulated for the growth of fungi, making it ideal for diagnosing fungal infections.
Question: What is a recommended stress management technique for reducing the risk of hypertension?
A. Increase working hours to complete tasks.
B. Engage in regular moderate physical activity.
C. Avoid social interactions to reduce stress.
D. Begin a high-intensity workout regimen immediately.
B - Engaging in regular moderate physical activity is a recommended stress management technique for reducing the risk of hypertension. It helps decrease stress levels and promotes cardiovascular health. High-intensity workouts can be risky for hypertensive patients.