RSE
Clue: This 4-letter acronym describes the primary scene hazard scan covering Hazards, Environment, Mechanism of Injury, and Patients/PPE.
Response: What is HEMP?
Reference Note: Used during the scene safety check to scan for hazards and environmental factors before approaching the patient.
Clue: This acronym is used during the primary survey to rapidly determine and classify a patient's Level of Consciousness (LOC).
Response: What is AVPU (Alert, Verbal, Painful, Unresponsive)?
Reference Note: Determines whether a patient is Alert, responds to Verbal cues, responds only to Painful stimuli, or is completely Unresponsive.
Clue: During circulation assessment, finding a carotid pulse present but an absent radial pulse indicates that the patient's systolic blood pressure has dropped below this threshold value
Response: What is an OPA (Oropharyngeal Airway)?
Reference Note: Prevents the tongue from occluding the hypopharynx in patients with a severely reduced LOC.
Clue: This foundational 6-letter mnemonic structure guides taking a medical history: Signs/Symptoms, Allergies, Medications, Past history, Last oral intake, and Events
Response: What is SAMPLE?
Reference Note: Used during history-taking in the secondary survey to collect comprehensive subjective health data.
Clue: Statistically, this single factor represents the single most important variable for out-of-hospital cardiac arrest survival.
Response: What is bystander CPR?
Reference Note: Without CPR, survival probability decreases by roughly 10% for every minute that passes without chest compressions.
Clue: These three items represent the mandatory minimum Personal Protective Equipment (PPE) required for an EMR during scene evaluation.
Response: What are gloves, safety glasses (goggles), and a radio?
Reference Note: Additional PPE (such as N-95 masks, gowns, or face shields) may be added based on situational risks.
Clue: This approximately 30-second hands-on physical check examines the whole body for deformities, open wounds, tenderness, and swelling (DOTS).
Response: What is the Rapid Body Survey (RBS)?
Reference Note: Used on trauma patients or medical patients with a reduced LOC to identify life- or limb-threatening conditions.
Clue: This high-flow delivery mask should be operated at 12 to 15 Liters Per Minute (LPM) to provide approximately 90% oxygen to patients in shock or severe respiratory distress.
Response: What is a Non-Rebreather Mask (NRB / NRM)?
Reference Note: Indicated for low oxygen saturation (<91%), severe dyspnea, or signs of shock.
Clue: In the OPQRST pain assessment tool, the letter 'Q' stands for this specific line of inquiry regarding the patient's discomfort.
Response: What is Quality (asking the patient to describe the pain in a word)?Reference Note: Elicits descriptions like "sharp," "dull," "crushing," or "burning."
Clue: High-quality adult chest compressions must be delivered at a rate of 100 to 120 per minute and at this minimum compression depth.
Response: What is 2 inches (5 cm)?
Reference Note: Full chest recoil between compressions is required to allow complete cardiac refilling.
Clue: This secondary acronym during RSE reminds responders to check for Backup/resources, Bodily substance isolation, and a Quick look at the patient's condition from a distance.
Response: What is BBQ?
Reference Note: Performed prior to patient contact to assess approximate age, skin condition, and distress level from a distance
Clue: When checking for circulation during the primary survey on an infant patient, an EMR should assess this specific pulse point instead of the radial pulse.
Response: What is the brachial pulse?Reference Note: Located on the inner upper arm; checked in place of radial/carotid pulses in infants.
Clue: To properly measure an Oropharyngeal Airway (OPA) prior to insertion, an EMR measures from this facial landmark to this second landmark.
Response: What is the corner of the mouth to the corner of the jaw (or earlobe)?
Reference Note: Correct sizing ensures the airway reaches the pharynx without causing trauma or worsening airway obstruction.
Clue: For a stable (Non-RTC) patient, vital signs should be reassessed and documented at this regular time interval.
Response: What is every 15 minutes (q15)?
Reference Note: Unstable / RTC patients require vital signs every 5 minutes (q5).
Clue: These two distinct cardiac dysrhythmias are classified as "shockable" rhythms by an Automated External Defibrillator (AED).
Response: What are Ventricular Fibrillation (V-Fib) and Pulseless Ventricular Tachycardia (V-Tac)?
Reference Note: Asystole and Pulseless Electrical Activity (PEA) are non-shockable rhythms.
Clue: In an evaluation framework comparing potential danger to potential benefit, an EMR must NOT enter a scene if it falls into this specific quadrant, such as entering a fully involved structure fire when all occupants are already out.
Response: What is High Risk / Low Reward?
Reference Note: Responders must never place themselves in high-risk situations for low-reward outcomes, as becoming a casualty compromises the entire response.
Clue: Unstable or high-priority patients identified as Rapid Transport Criteria (RTC) must be packaged and loaded for transport within this maximum scene time limit.
Response: What is 15 minutes?
Reference Note: RTC patients require critical interventions on scene but must be loaded and en route to definitive care within 15 minutes.
Clue: When assisting ventilations with a Bag-Valve-Mask (BVM) for an adult patient in respiratory failure, breaths should be delivered at this exact timing interval.
Response: What is 1 breath every 5 to 6 seconds (10–12 breaths per minute)?
Reference Note: Children/infants require 1 breath every 3 to 5 seconds (20 breaths per minute).
Clue: This clinical score evaluates Eye Opening (1–4), Verbal Response (1–5), and Motor Response (1–6) to yield a maximum score of 15.
Response: What is the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS)?
Reference Note: Used in vital signs monitoring to evaluate depth of unconsciousness or neurological status changes.
Clue: When performing two-rescuer CPR on an infant or child, the compression-to-ventilation ratio changes from 30:2 to this specific ratio.
Response: What is 15:2?
Reference Note: Maximizes ventilation frequency due to higher incidence of primary respiratory/hypoxic arrest in pediatric patients.
Clue: This critical safety concept describes being continuously aware of your surroundings and avoiding "tunnel vision" on a single task while on scene.
Response: What is situational awareness?
Reference Note: Crucial for detecting changing conditions, hostile bystanders, or unrecognized scene hazards.
Clue: During circulation assessment, finding a carotid pulse present but an absent radial pulse indicates that the patient's systolic blood pressure has dropped below this threshold value
Response: What is less than 90 mm Hg
Clue: This 6-letter acronym serves as a final double-check for critical interventions: Position, Oxygen, Blanket/BVM, OPA/NPA, Bandage, and Support.
Response: What is POBOBS?
Reference Note: Used at the end of the primary survey to verify that all necessary critical interventions have been initiated.
Clue: Palpating a crackling or "rice-krispies" sensation under the skin during a chest examination indicates trapped air in the tissue, known by this medical term.
Response: What is subcutaneous emphysema?
Reference Note: Often secondary to trauma, pneumothorax, or tracheal/bronchial rupture.
Clue: An EMR may discontinue resuscitation for prolonged no-flow duration if the collapse was unwitnessed with no CPR for how many minutes?
Response: What is at least 20 minutes
Reference Note: Strict protocol criteria must be fully satisfied prior to consideration of stopping CPR under prolonged no-flow protocols. Consult physician