EBP
Values
CVP
Neuro
Random
100

Which of the following best describes the power of analysis (or statistical power) in decision-making?

A) The ability to memorize large amounts of information without interpretation.
B) The process of breaking down complex information to identify patterns, relationships, and solutions.
C) Making decisions based solely on intuition without evaluating data.
D) Avoiding critical thinking and relying on assumptions.

Correct Answer: B – The power of analysis involves systematically examining information to uncover insights and make informed decisions.

100

Which of the following statements about the International Normalized Ratio (INR) is correct?

A) A normal INR range is typically between 2.0 and 3.0 for all individuals.
B) Individuals taking anticoagulants, such as warfarin, often have a higher target INR range of 2.0-3.0.
C) An INR below 0.8 indicates a higher risk of bleeding.
D) The INR value is not affected by medication use.

Correct Answer: B – Individuals on anticoagulants, such as warfarin, often have a higher target INR range (e.g., 2.0-3.0) to prevent blood clots

*Normal value is 0.8-1.2

*An INR below 0.8 typically indicates that the blood is clotting faster than normal, which may increase the risk of blood clots (thrombosis). This can be concerning in individuals who require anticoagulation therapy, as it suggests that their blood may not be sufficiently thinned, increasing the risk of conditions like deep vein thrombosis (DVT) or stroke. 

100

Which of the following best explains the role of the sternocleidomastoid (SCM) muscles in a patient with pulmonary sarcoidosis?

A) The SCM muscles help elevate the ribs to assist with breathing due to pulmonary dysfunction.
B) The SCM muscles become hypertrophic due to direct granuloma formation in the muscle tissue.
C) Pulmonary sarcoidosis weakens the SCM muscles, reducing their role in respiration.
D) The SCM muscles primarily function to stabilize the clavicle and are unaffected by pulmonary conditions.

Correct Answer: A – The SCM muscles are commonly used as accessory muscles of respiration in patients with pulmonary dysfunction, such as pulmonary sarcoidosis, to help elevate the first and second ribs and improve lung inflation

100

During your examination, you assess pinprick sensation along the right upper extremity of a 65-year-old patient who sustained a left MCA stroke three weeks ago. The results show decreased sensation, and the patient also mentions accidentally cutting themselves while cooking without feeling any pain. Which of the following BEST describes the likely sensory impairment?

A) Anesthesia

B) Allodynia

C) Analgesia

D) Dysesthesia

C) Analgesia

Explanation:

  • The patient has sustained a left middle cerebral artery (MCA) stroke, which typically affects the contralateral (right) side of the body due to the brain's organization.
  • They have decreased sensation to pinprick and report not feeling pain from a cut, suggesting a loss of pain perception rather than abnormal pain sensations.
  • Analgesia refers to the loss of pain sensation, which matches the clinical presentation.
100

What is the primary purpose of Tukey’s post hoc test in statistical analysis?

A) To determine if there is a significant association between categorical variables.
B) To compare the means of more than two groups after finding a significant ANOVA result.
C) To test for normality in a dataset before conducting further statistical tests.
D) To measure the correlation between two continuous variables.

Correct Answer: B – Tukey’s post hoc test is used to compare the means of multiple groups after an ANOVA test finds a significant difference, helping to identify which specific groups differ

200

Which of the following is the primary purpose of a t-test in statistical analysis?

A) To compare the means of two groups to determine if there is a significant difference between them.
B) To measure the strength and direction of a relationship between two variables.
C) To analyze the variance among multiple groups.
D) To test for normality in a dataset before conducting further statistical tests.

A) To compare the means of two groups to determine if there is a significant difference between them.

200

A 70-year-old male patient is undergoing outpatient physical therapy for generalized deconditioning after a prolonged hospital stay. During the initial assessment, his lab results reveal a hematocrit (Hct) level of 25%. Which of the following clinical findings should the therapist be MOST concerned about during treatment?

A) Increased risk of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) and hypertension
B) Reduced exercise tolerance and increased fatigue
C) Increased risk of spontaneous bleeding and bruising
D) Hyperexcitability and muscle cramping

B) Reduced exercise tolerance and increased fatigue

Explanation:

  • Hematocrit (Hct) is the percentage of red blood cells in total blood volume. Normal levels are approximately:
    • Males: 41-50%
    • Females: 36-48%
  • A hematocrit level of 25% is low (anemia), leading to reduced oxygen-carrying capacity, which can result in:
    • Fatigue
    • Reduced exercise tolerance
    • Dyspnea (shortness of breath)
    • Tachycardia (increased heart rate) during exertion
200

Which of the following conditions is most commonly associated with digital clubbing due to chronic oxygen deprivation?

A) Anemia
B) Low INR levels
C) Increased LDL levels
D) Chronic pulmonary dysfunction with hypercapnia

Correct Answer: D – Digital clubbing is most commonly associated with chronic pulmonary dysfunction, which often leads to hypercapnia (CO2 retention), causing chronic oxygen deprivation.

200

A 55-year-old patient with a 10-year history of type 2 diabetes mellitus is undergoing sensory testing using light touch localization. When assessed on the plantar surface of the foot, the patient correctly identifies 4 out of 5 stimuli. How should this result be interpreted?

A) Intact

B) Minimally Impaired

C) Severely Impaired

D) Absent

B) Minimally Impaired

Explanation:

  • The patient has type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM) for 10 years, which increases the risk of diabetic peripheral neuropathy (DPN) affecting sensation, particularly in the feet.
  • Light touch localization assesses the patient’s ability to perceive and identify tactile stimuli.
  • The patient correctly identifies 4 out of 5 stimuli, indicating some impairment but not a severe deficit.
200

What is the main purpose of conducting an Analysis of Variance (ANOVA)?

A) To compare the means of two independent groups and determine if there is a significant difference.
B) To test for the correlation between two continuous variables.
C) To compare the means of three or more groups to determine if there is a significant difference among them.
D) To measure the strength of the relationship between categorical variables.

Correct Answer: C – ANOVA is used to compare the means of three or more groups and determine if there is a significant difference among them

300

Which of the following is the primary purpose of a Chi-Square test?

A) To compare the means of two independent groups.
B) To determine if there is a significant association between categorical variables.
C) To measure the correlation between two continuous variables.
D) To test for differences in variance across multiple groups.

Correct Answer: B – A Chi-Square test is used to analyze whether there is a statistically significant association between categorical variables.

300

A 65-year-old female patient with a history of chronic kidney disease (CKD) is undergoing physical therapy for generalized weakness and balance impairments. Her recent lab results reveal a hemoglobin (Hb) level of 8 g/dL. Which of the following precautions should the therapist take when planning her exercise session?

A) Encourage high-intensity aerobic training to improve cardiovascular endurance
B) Monitor for signs of dizziness, fatigue, and tachycardia during exercise
C) Implement resistive exercises in supine only to reduce the risk of postural hypotension
D) Delay therapy until hemoglobin levels return to normal

B) Monitor for signs of dizziness, fatigue, and tachycardia during exercise

Explanation:

  • Normal hemoglobin (Hb) levels:
    • Men: 13.5-17.5 g/dL
    • Women: 12-16 g/dL
  • A level of 8 g/dL is low (anemia) and can result in:
    • Reduced oxygen-carrying capacity, leading to fatigue and dyspnea (shortness of breath)
    • Tachycardia and dizziness, especially during exertion
    • Exercise intolerance
300

Which of the following best describes cor pulmonale?

A) A condition where the left side of the heart fails due to systemic hypertension.
B) Right-sided heart failure resulting from chronic pulmonary disease or pulmonary hypertension.
C) A condition characterized by the formation of blood clots in the lungs leading to heart failure.
D) A type of heart failure caused by myocardial infarction affecting the right ventricle.

Correct Answer: B – Cor pulmonale refers to right-sided heart failure that results from chronic pulmonary disease or pulmonary hypertension

300

A 72-year-old male with a history of Parkinson’s disease presents with slow, hoarse speech and reports difficulty controlling his breathing during conversation. Which of the following communication disorders is the patient MOST likely experiencing?

A) Broca’s Aphasia

B) Flaccid Dysarthria

C) Verbal Apraxia

D) Transcortical Aphasia

B) Flaccid Dysarthria

Explanation:

  • Parkinson’s disease is commonly associated with dysarthria, a motor speech disorder caused by impaired movement of the muscles involved in speech production.
  • The slow, hoarse speech and difficulty controlling breathing during conversation suggest dysarthria, rather than an aphasia (which affects language comprehension and formulation).
  • Flaccid dysarthria specifically results from lower motor neuron (LMN) dysfunction, causing weakness in speech-related muscles, leading to breathy, hoarse, and nasal speech with poor breath control—symptoms that match the patient’s description.
300

What does a third heart sound (S3) often indicate?

A) Normal heart function
B) Aortic stenosis
C) CHF or volume overload
D) Mitral valve prolapse

Correct Answer: C – A third heart sound (S3) is typically heard in conditions like congestive heart failure (CHF) or volume overload, where there is rapid ventricular filling. It is often indicative of increased blood volume or decreased left ventricular compliance.

400

What does a p-value represent in statistical hypothesis testing?

A) The probability that the null hypothesis is true.
B) The probability of obtaining the observed results, or more extreme ones, assuming the null hypothesis is true.
C) The confidence level of an experiment’s results.
D) The measure of effect size in a study.

Correct Answer: B – The p-value indicates the probability of observing the given data, or more extreme results, if the null hypothesis is true.

400

A 58-year-old male patient with a history of chronic kidney disease (CKD) and hypertension is undergoing physical therapy for lower extremity strengthening. During the session, he reports muscle weakness and intermittent palpitations. His recent lab results indicate a serum potassium level of 6.2 mEq/L. Which of the following actions should the physical therapist take?

A) Continue the session but emphasize aerobic exercise to improve circulation
B) Stop the session immediately and notify the medical team
C) Encourage the patient to drink more fluids and continue with low-intensity exercise
D) Educate the patient on the importance of potassium-rich foods such as bananas and oranges

B) Stop the session immediately and notify the medical team

Explanation:

  • Normal serum potassium levels: 3.5-5.0 mEq/L
  • Hyperkalemia (>5.0 mEq/L) can cause:
    • Muscle weakness
    • Cardiac arrhythmias (palpitations, irregular heartbeat, bradycardia, or even cardiac arrest)
    • Fatigue and paresthesia
  • A potassium level of 6.2 mEq/L is a medical emergency, as severe hyperkalemia can lead to life-threatening cardiac arrhythmias.
400

Which of the following is the primary goal of diaphragmatic breathing?

A) Improve ventilation to upper lung segments
B) Improve ventilation to lower lung segments
C) Diminish lower chest breathing
D) Increase upper chest breathing

Correct Answer: B – The primary goal of diaphragmatic breathing is to improve ventilation to the lower lung segments by encouraging deeper, more efficient breathing.

400

A 68-year-old patient with a left MCA stroke one month ago is being assessed for spasticity using the Modified Ashworth Scale. When assessing shoulder flexion, you note a slight increase in muscle tone with a “catch” followed by minimal resistance throughout the remainder of the range of motion. What MAS grade should be assigned?

A) 0

B) 1

C) 1+

D) 2

C) 1+

Explanation:

The Modified Ashworth Scale (MAS) is used to assess spasticity by grading the resistance felt during passive movement.

  • The key findings in this case:
    • Slight increase in muscle tone
    • A “catch” (indicative of spasticity)
    • Minimal resistance through the remainder of the movement

According to the Modified Ashworth Scale:

  • 0 = No increase in muscle tone
  • 1 = Slight increase in muscle tone, manifested by a catch and release OR minimal resistance at the end of the ROM
  • 1+ = Slight increase in tone, catch, followed by minimal resistance throughout the remainder of the ROM (which matches this case)
  • 2 = More marked increase in tone, but limb moves easily
400

What is the normal duration of the QRS complex on an ECG?

A) <0.10 sec
B) 0.12-0.20 sec
C) >0.20 sec
D) <0.11 sec


Correct Answer: A – The normal duration of the QRS complex is less than 0.10 seconds, indicating the time taken for ventricular depolarization. If it's longer, it could suggest conduction issues like a bundle branch block.

*Normal PR interval: B) 0.12-0.20 sec

500

What does a p-value of 0.07 indicate in a statistical test using a significance level of 0.05?

A) There is strong evidence against the null hypothesis, and it should be rejected.
B) The result is statistically significant, confirming the alternative hypothesis.
C) There is not enough evidence to reject the null hypothesis.
D) The null hypothesis is proven to be true.

Correct Answer: C – A p-value of 0.07 is greater than the typical significance level of 0.05, meaning there is not enough evidence to reject the null hypothesis, though it may suggest a trend worth further investigation.

500

A 70-year-old male patient with a history of congestive heart failure (CHF) is admitted to the hospital for worsening dyspnea and lower extremity edema. A pulmonary artery catheter is placed, and his pulmonary capillary wedge pressure (PCWP) is measured at 22 mmHg. Based on this finding, which of the following symptoms is the patient MOST likely to exhibit?

A) Hypotension and dehydration
B) Increased urine output and dry mucous membranes
C) Pulmonary congestion and shortness of breath
D) Decreased peripheral edema and improved exercise tolerance

C) Pulmonary congestion and shortness of breath

Explanation:

  • Pulmonary Capillary Wedge Pressure (PCWP) is an indirect measure of left atrial pressure and is used to assess left ventricular function.
  • Normal PCWP: 4-12 mmHg
  • Elevated PCWP (>18-20 mmHg) indicates left-sided heart failure and leads to pulmonary congestion due to increased pressure in the pulmonary capillaries.
  • A PCWP of 22 mmHg suggests pulmonary edema, which presents as:
    • Shortness of breath (dyspnea)
    • Orthopnea (difficulty breathing when lying flat)
    • Crackles (rales) on lung auscultation
500

What is the purpose of segmental breathing exercises?

A) To encourage expansion of the entire lung
B) To encourage expansion of a specific lung segment
C) To decrease respiratory rate
D) To improve diaphragmatic strength

Correct Answer: B – Segmental breathing exercises are designed to encourage the expansion of a specific lung segment, helping to improve lung function and airflow in targeted areas

500

A 45-year-old patient is standing on a foam surface when they suddenly receive a large backward perturbation. To regain balance, which muscle group activation pattern is expected in a hip strategy response?

A) Gastrocnemius, Hamstrings, Paraspinals

B) Abdominals, Quadriceps, Tibialis Anterior

C) Abdominals and Quadriceps

D) Paraspinals and Hamstrings

D) Paraspinals and Hamstrings

Explanation:

The hip strategy is used for balance recovery when:

  • Standing on unstable or compliant surfaces (e.g., foam) where ankle strategy is less effective.
  • Experiencing a large perturbation (such as a sudden backward push).

Hip Strategy for a BACKWARD Perturbation

When the body is pushed backward, the trunk moves posteriorly, and the body compensates by activating hip flexors to bring the center of mass forward:

  • Primary muscles activated:
    • Hamstrings (to pull the pelvis forward)
    • Paraspinals (to extend the trunk and maintain balance)
500

A 60-year-old female with a history of a left MCA stroke is being evaluated for difficulty with activities of daily living. When asked to brush her hair, she is unable to perform the task on command but is later observed brushing her hair spontaneously without issue. Which of the following impairments BEST describes this presentation?

A) Agnosia

B) Aphasia

C) Apraxia

D) Ataxia

C) Apraxia

Explanation:

  • The patient has difficulty performing a learned motor task on command but can do it spontaneously when not consciously thinking about it.
  • This is characteristic of ideomotor apraxia, a type of apraxia in which a person understands the task but cannot execute it when asked.
  • Left MCA stroke often affects the parietal or frontal lobe, which are involved in motor planning, leading to apraxia.
M
e
n
u