HTN/CAD
What is the most common cause of coronary artery disease?
Answer: Atherosclerosis.
Rationale: Plaque buildup narrows coronary arteries, reducing blood flow to the myocardium.
What is the most significant risk factor for DVT?
Answer: Immobility.
Rationale: Prolonged immobility leads to venous stasis and clot formation.
What is the hallmark symptom of peripheral arterial disease (PAD)?
Answer: Intermittent claudication.
Rationale: Pain with activity occurs due to inadequate oxygen delivery to leg muscles.
What does FAST stand for in stroke recognition?
Answer: Face drooping, Arm weakness, Speech difficulty, Time to call 911.
Rationale: FAST identifies early warning signs of stroke and emphasizes quick action.
What is the most common cause of left-sided heart failure?
Answer: Hypertension.
Rationale: Chronic high afterload leads to left ventricular hypertrophy and failure.
A client’s blood pressure is 170/100 mmHg. What is the nurse’s priority assessment?
Assess for signs of target organ damage (e.g., headache, vision changes).
Rationale: Severe hypertension may indicate end-organ damage such as stroke or renal involvement.
Which nursing intervention helps prevent DVT in post-surgical clients?
Answer: Early ambulation.
Rationale: Mobilization improves venous return and decreases clot risk.
What position relieves pain in clients with PAD?
Answer: Dangling the legs at the bedside.
Rationale: Gravity promotes arterial blood flow to the lower extremities.
What is the priority diagnostic test for suspected stroke?
Answer: CT scan of the head.
Rationale: A CT scan differentiates ischemic from hemorrhagic stroke to guide treatment.
Which symptom is most characteristic of right-sided heart failure?
Answer: Peripheral edema.
Rationale: Right-sided failure causes venous congestion leading to fluid retention.
Which medication class reduces heart rate and myocardial workload in clients with hypertension?
Answer: Beta-blockers.
Rationale: Beta-blockers lower cardiac output and reduce blood pressure by slowing heart rate and contractility.
They also.... Beta-blockers prevent angina by reducing heart rate and oxygen demand.
A client develops sudden shortness of breath and chest pain. What condition should the nurse suspect?
Answer: Pulmonary embolism.
Rationale: These are hallmark symptoms of PE due to blocked pulmonary blood flow.
Which teaching is appropriate for a client with venous insufficiency?
Answer: Elevate legs when resting.
Rationale: Elevation reduces venous pressure and promotes return flow.
What is the therapeutic window for tPA administration?
Answer: Within 3–4.5 hours of symptom onset.
Rationale: Timely thrombolytic therapy minimizes permanent brain damage.
Which dietary teaching is most important for a client with heart failure?
Answer: Limit sodium intake.
Rationale: Sodium restriction prevents fluid retention and reduces cardiac workload.
What is the goal of nitroglycerin therapy for angina?
Answer: To reduce myocardial oxygen demand by vasodilation.
Rationale: Nitroglycerin dilates coronary vessels, reducing workload and improving perfusion.
What is the nurse’s priority intervention when a PE is suspected?
Answer: Administer oxygen and notify the provider immediately.
Rationale: Improving oxygenation and rapid medical response are vital to prevent death.
What finding indicates arterial insufficiency rather than venous?
Answer: Cool, pale skin with diminished pulses.
Rationale: Arterial disease reduces blood flow, causing pallor and decreased pulses.
What is the nurse’s priority before giving oral fluids to a stroke client?
Answer: Swallow evaluation.
Rationale: Prevents aspiration in clients with potential dysphagia.
What lab value helps monitor fluid balance in heart failure?
Answer: BNP (B-type natriuretic peptide).
Rationale: BNP rises as ventricular pressure increases, signaling fluid overload.
Prioritize the following hypertensive clients: A) 170/100 asymptomatic, B) 200/120 with headache and blurred vision, C) 160/94 on meds.
Answer: Client B first.
Rationale: Client B shows signs of hypertensive emergency requiring immediate evaluation.
Which diagnostic test confirms a pulmonary embolism?
Answer: CT pulmonary angiogram.
Rationale: A CT scan with contrast is the gold standard for PE diagnosis.
Client with PAD reporting rest pain, B) Client with venous ulcers, C) Client with mild ankle edema.
Answer: Client A first.
Rationale: Rest pain suggests critical ischemia and potential limb loss.
During acute stroke care, which vital sign requires the nurse’s immediate attention: BP 190/100 or temp 101°F?
Answer: Temperature 101°F.
Rationale: Fever increases cerebral metabolism and worsens brain injury.
Prioritize: A) Client with dyspnea at rest, B) Client with 3+ edema, C) Client reporting mild fatigue.
Answer: Client A first.
Rationale: Dyspnea at rest indicates pulmonary congestion and potential respiratory distress.