Cardiovascular System Basics
General Anatomy & Physiology
Anesthesia Effects on the CV System
Pharmacology: Anesthesia Meds & CV Impact
Clinical Scenarios
100

Q: What is the normal adult cardiac output (CO) range at rest?

A: 4–8 L/min

Rationale: CO = HR × SV; typical resting values yield ~4–8 L/min.

100

Q: Which organ initiates renin release to help regulate blood pressure?

A: Kidney (juxtaglomerular cells)

Rationale: RAAS activation raises BP via angiotensin II and aldosterone.

100

Q: In general, how do volatile anesthetics affect SVR?

A: They decrease SVR (vasodilation)

Rationale: Smooth muscle relaxation → reduced afterload.

100

Q: Which commonly used IV induction agent most predictably causes hypotension?

A: Propofol

Rationale: Venodilation + arterial dilation → ↓ preload/afterload.

100

Q: Immediately after induction, BP falls from 120/70 to 80/45. What is the most appropriate first step?

A: Reduce anesthetic depth and give a 250–500 mL crystalloid bolus (while verifying measurement and assessing airway/ventilation).

Rationale: Address common vasodilation/relative hypovolemia before escalating meds.

200

Q: Name the valve between the left atrium and left ventricle.


A: Mitral (bicuspid) valve

Rationale: Prevents backflow from LV to LA during systole.


200

 Which hormone directly promotes water reabsorption to affect BP? → 

Vasopressin (ADH); 

Rationale: Acts on V2 receptors in kidneys.

200

Q: Which anesthetic technique is most associated with bradycardia due to sympathetic blockade of cardiac accelerators?

A: High neuraxial (spinal/epidural) block affecting T1–T4

Rationale: Blocks sympathetic fibers to the heart → bradycardia.

200

What are the two serum markers of cardiac infarction?

A: Cardiac troponin I and creatine kinase MB (CK-MB) 

Rationale: Troponin is cardiac specific regulatory protein in muscle class that controls interactions between skeletal and cardiac muscle. 

200

Q: During spinal anesthesia, the patient’s BP drops significantly. Which vasopressor is commonly used first-line?

A: Phenylephrine (consider ephedrine if bradycardic)

Rationale: Phenylephrine raises SVR; ephedrine adds β effect for low HR.

300

Q: Which cardiac conduction structure typically initiates the heartbeat?



A: Sinoatrial (SA) node

Rationale: The primary pacemaker, ~60–100 bpm intrinsic rate.

300

Q: Name two key electrolytes essential for normal cardiac action potentials.

A: Potassium (K+) and Calcium (Ca2+)

Rationale: K+ repolarization; Ca2+ plateau/contraction (Na+ also critical for depolarization).

300

Q: Why can positive-pressure ventilation (PPV) reduce venous return?.

A: Increased intrathoracic pressure compresses venous structures → ↓ preload

Rationale: Less venous return → ↓ CO

300

Q: What are propofol’s effects on preload and afterload?

A: Decreases both (venodilation and arterial vasodilation)

Rationale: Reduces venous return and systemic resistance.

300

Q: A patient with CAD needs a hemodynamically stable induction. Which agent is preferred?

A: Etomidate

Rationale: Minimal changes in HR/BP—useful in limited cardiac reserve.

400

Q: Define afterload. →


 Resistance the LV must overcome to eject blood (closely related to SVR/aortic impedance).  

400

Q: Which cranial nerve provides parasympathetic input that slows heart rate?A: Vagus nerve (CN X)Rationale: Increases AV nodal refractoriness and slows SA node firing.

A: Vagus nerve (CN X)

Rationale: Increases AV nodal refractoriness and slows SA node firing.

400

Q: What is the typical effect of modern volatile agents on myocardial contractility?

A: Dose-dependent depression of contractility

Rationale: Decreased Ca2+ availability/handling → reduced inotropy.

400

: Which neuromuscular blocker is known to cause tachycardia due to vagolytic properties?

A: Pancuronium

Rationale: Blocks muscarinic receptors → ↑ HR.

400

Q: Post-op patient develops a new ventricular ectopy. Which electrolyte imbalance should you suspect first?

A: Hypokalemia (also consider hypomagnesemia)

Rationale: Low K+ predisposes to arrhythmias.

500

: State the Frank–Starling principle of the heart.

A: Increased preload (end-diastolic fiber stretch) → increased stroke volume up to an optimal point.

Rationale: Sarcomere length affects contractile force; excessive stretch impairs function.

500

Q: Briefly describe how baroreceptors help maintain hemodynamic stability.

A: Stretch receptors (carotid sinus/aortic arch) sense BP changes and modulate autonomic outflow to keep BP near set point.

Rationale: Rapid feedback loop adjusting HR, SVR, and contractility.

500

Q: Explain the primary mechanism of hypotension during spinal anesthesia.

A: Sympathetic blockade → vasodilation & venous pooling → ↓ preload/afterload → hypotension

Rationale: The extent depends on block level, patient volume status.

500

Q: Summarize how perioperative beta-blockade interacts with anesthetic agents.

A: Blunts sympathetic responses (↓ HR/contractility), reduces ischemia/arrhythmias, but may increase risk of bradycardia/hypotension—dose titration and readiness to treat are essential.

Rationale: Maintain coronary perfusion while avoiding excessive hemodynamic depression.

500

Q: What is the rationale for using vasopressors during anesthesia-induced hypotension?

A: Restore SVR and perfusion pressure to maintain organ/coronary perfusion when vasodilation or myocardial depression lowers BP

Rationale: Temporizes while optimizing volume and anesthetic depth.

M
e
n
u