BP
L&D
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100

The nurse reviews the teaching plan with a client receiving nifedipine (Procardia). Which of the following client behaviors indicates understanding?

The client avoids taking the drug with grapefruit juice.
The client consumes three servings of alcohol daily.
The client breaks an enteric-coated tablet for ease of swallowing.
The client monitors blood pressure every week

The client avoids taking the drug with grapefruit juice.

Rationale: Grapefruit juice increases absorption of nifedipine, resulting in increased serum level. Blood pressure ideally should be monitored more frequently. Alcohol intake of three times a day is excessive. Breaking enteric tablets will interfere with time release of the medication.

100

Which drug will the health care provider prescribe to soften the cervix of a woman who is at 42 weeks of gestation?

a. Methylergonovine (Methergine)
b. Dinoprostone (Prepidil)
c. Betamethasone (Celestone)
d. Terbutaline (Brethine)

B - Dinoprostone 

rationale is a natural chemical in the body that causes uterine and gastrointestinal smooth muscle stimulation. It plays a role in cervical softening and dilation unrelated to uterine muscle stimulation. It is used to start and continue cervical ripening at term. Methergine is used to treat postpartum bleeding. Betamethasone is used to enhance fetal lung development. Terbutaline is used to treat premature labor.

100

A nurse administers desmopressin to a client who has a diagnosis of diabetes insipidus. Does the nurse 

recognize that the following laboratory findings indicate a therapeutic effect of the medication?

a.   Serum sodium 146 mEq/L 

b.   Blood glucose 80 mg/dL 

c.   Urine specific gravity 1.015

d.   Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) 15 mg/dL

c.   Urine specific gravity 1.015

100

which of the following suggests an adverse reaction to the medication cyclobenzaprine

a. Bp: 115/70

b. flushed face

c. urinary output of 30ml per hour 

d. the debilitating desire to continuosly roar like a lion

urine

100

alendronate indicates a need for further teaching?

a. "i need to sit up for 30 min after taking this medication"

b. "i need to take this tablet with 6-8 ounces of water"

c. "i need to chew this medication if it does not fully dissolve"

d. " i need to use sunscreen"

c. "i need to chew this medication if it does not fully dissolve"

200

what medications are contraindicated for tadalafil

nitrates

200

Which drug is administered when a patient is experiencing premature labor?

a. Magnesium sulfate
b. Oxytocin (Pitocin)
c. Levonorgestrel (Mirena)
d. Terbutaline (Brethine)

D. Terbutaline

 Terbutaline is a beta adrenergic receptor stimulant, which acts primarily on the beta2 receptors. Stimulation of beta1 receptors produces uterine relaxation and relaxation of the bronchial and vascular smooth muscle. In higher doses, terbutaline will stimulate the beta1receptors, which raises heart rate. Magnesium sulfate is given to treat eclampsia. Oxytocin is given to produce uterine contractions. Levonorgestrel is a progestin given for contraception.

200
a patient with autism has been when reviewing the patients chart which of the following prescription medications should the nurse question?

A. Methylphenidate 

b. Lithium 

C. Fluconazole

D. Azithromycin 

A. methylphenidate 

200

After administering SOMATROPIN to a patient, the nurse would assess for potential adverse effects of this medication by monitoring which laboratory test result?

A. Glucose (hyperglycemia/hypoglycemia)
B. Platelets
C. Potassium
D. Magnesium

A. Glucose

Hyperglycemia and hypoglycemia are potential adverse effects of somatropin therapy.

200

The client is receiving Cisplatin (Platinol-AQ). Which of the following side effect is related to the medication?

A. Depressed tendon reflexes.

B. Photosensitivity.

C. Tinnitus.

D. Ptosis.

C. Tinnitus

300

Nifedipine (Procardia) 30 mg p.o. is prescribed for a client. The nurse teaches the side effects and instructs the client to immediately report:

Blood pressure 110/70-114/78 for two successive readings.
Dizziness when changing positions.
Increased shortness of breath and orthopnea.
Weight loss of two pounds per week.

Increased shortness of breath and orthopnea.

Rationale: Nifedipine (Procardia) is a calcium channel blocker. Calcium channel blockers decrease myocardial contractility, increasing the risk of heart failure. Dizziness can occur, especially when the medication is started. The BP is a desired reading.

300

A pt is receiving butorphanol what adverse reaction should the nurse monitor for

a. fetal tachycardia

B. fetal bradycardia 

c. maternal tachypnea

d. infection 

b. fetal bradycardia 

300

The nurse in the emergency department is caring for a patient with a suspected overdose of diazepam [Valium]. Which agent is most likely to be administered to reverse the effects of diazepam?
A. Naloxone [Narcan]
B. Flumazenil [Romazicon]
C. Acetylcysteine [Mucomyst]
D. Vitamin K

B. Flumazenil

300

a nurse is educating a parent whos child has just been prescribed somatropin which of the following statements indicates a need for further education

a. "if my child expirences persistant n/v i will notify PCP'

b. "this medications works on the bone so i shouldnt be alarmed if my child expirences mild joint pain"

c. "i need to monitor my childs blood sugar often"

d. " i will administer this to my child weekly" 

b. "this medications works on the bone so i shouldnt be alarmed if my child expirences mild joint pain"


300

Pt on baclofen nurse needs to tell her what SATA

a. Whenever you stop hurting stop taking this medication 

b. It is not recommeded to breastfeed on this medication

C. change positions slowly to prevent orthostatic hypertension

D. This medication is recommended for pts with seizure disorders

E. If you miss your dose take it when you remember

F. If your stomach hurts you can take with milk or food to decrease distress

b. It is not recommeded to breastfeed on this medication

C. change positions slowly to prevent orthostatic hypertension

F. If your stomach hurts you can take with milk or food to decrease distress


RAtionale 

A: needs to be taken off gradually over 2 weeks 

D: baclofen can cause seizures as an adverse reaction it is not given to pts with seizure disorders

E: only take missed dose if you remember within one hour 

400

A 26-year-old patient with preeclampsia is receiving IV magnesium sulfate. The 1400 assessment includes:

BP - 100/70 mm Hg
Respiration - 10
Fetal heart tone - 100/min
Urine output - 20 mL/hr
Absent patellar reflex

Which is the priority nursing action?

a. Decrease IV magnesium sulfate to half the dose and reassess the patient and fetus in 15 minutes.
b. Stop the IV magnesium sulfate and contact the health care provider.
c. Place the patient on her left side and administer oxygen.
d. Stop the IV magnesium sulfate and administer calcium gluconate 5 mEq IV over 3 minutes.

D - Stop the IV magnesium sulfate and administer calcium gluconate 5 mEq IV over 3 minutes.


The patient is exhibiting signs of magnesium sulfate toxicity, including respiratory depression. The infusion should be stopped at once. The antidote, calcium gluconate, should be administered.

400

A patient who is having a tonic-clonic seizure is prescribed Phenobarbital. During administration of this drug, it is important the nurse monitors for:

A. Respiratory depression
B. Hypertension
C. Disseminated intravascular clotting
D. Hypotension
E. Fever

A. respiratory depression

D. Hypotension

400

a pt was administered insulin detemir at 0800 at what time is the pt most at risk for hypoglycemia?

a. 1200

b.  0100

c. 2400

d. 0900

a. 1100

peak is 3-14 hrs 

500

Nifedipine (Procardia) has been ordered for a client with HT. In the care plan, the nurse includes the need to monitor for which ADVERSE effect?
1. Rash & chills
2. Reflex tachycardia
3. Increased U/O
4. Weight Loss

2.REFLEX TACHY

Nifedipine (procardia) a CCB may cause hypotension with Reflex Tachycardia.

500

The nurse is monitoring a client who is receiving oxytocin to induce labor. 

Which assessment findings should cause the nurse to immediately discontinue 

the oxytocin infusion? Select all that apply.

a.     Fatigue

b.     Drowsiness

c.     Uterine hyperstimulation

d.     Late decelerations of the fetal heart rate

e.     Early decelerations of the fetal heart rate

c.     Uterine hyperstimulation

d.     Late decelerations of the fetal heart rate


Rationale:

Oxytocin stimulates uterine contractions and is a pharmacological 

method to induce labor. Late decelerations, a nonreassuring fetal heart 

rate pattern, is an ominous sign indicating fetal distress. Oxytocin 

infusion must be stopped when any signs of uterine hyperstimulation, 

late decelerations, or other adverse effects occur. Some obstetricians 

prescribe the administration of oxytocin in 10-minute pulsed infusions 

rather than as a continuous infusion. This pulsed method, which is more 

like endogenous secretion of oxytocin, is reported to be effective for 

labor induction and requires significantly less oxytocin use. Drowsiness 

and fatigue may be caused by the labor experience. Early decelerations 

of the fetal heart rate are a reassuring sign and do not indicate fetal 

distress.

500

Which of the following best describes the mechanism of action of ethinyl estradiol in oral contraceptives?
A. Delays sperm transport
B. Inhibits release of follicle-stimulating hormone
C. Inhibits release of luteinizing hormone
D. Thickens cervical mucus

 B. Exogenously administered estrogen provides negative feedback, which blunts the release of FSH from the pituitary. Progestin inhibits the release of LH, thickens cervical mucus, and, thus, delays sperm transport.

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