A suitable alternative for the management of Heart Failure in a patient that experiences a persistant cough.
What is an angiotensin II receptor blocker (ARB)?
100
This is a pneumonia severity score evaluating the following clinical criteria: Confusion, Urea > 7 mmol/L, Respitratory rate > 30, SBP <90 mmHg, DBP <60 mmHg, and Age > 65 years
What is CURB-65?
100
Amitriptyline, Imipramine and Nortriptyline are in this therapeutic class.
What are tricyclic antidepressants?
100
An FDA regulated, appropriately constituted group that has been formally designated to review and monitor biomedical research involving human subjects. In accordance with FDA regulations, they have the authority to approve, require modifications in (to secure approval), or disapprove research. This group's review serves an important role in the protection of the rights and welfare of human research subjects.
What is an Institutional Review Board (IRB)?
100
___________ is defined as neutropenia and a single oral temperature of 101 degrees fahrenheit or more or a temperature of 100.4 degrees fahrenheit or more for a least one hour.
What is febrile neutropenia?
200
Warfarin, Dabigatran, Apixaban and Rivaroxaban are appropriate treatments for these disease states.
What is treatment options for the management of Atrial Fibrillation and Treatment of DVT/PE?
200
Vancomycin, Linezolid, Clindamycin, Tigecycline, Daptomycin, and Sulfamethoxazole/Trimethoprim all cover this multidrug resistant pathogen.
What is methicillin-resistant staphylococcus aureus (MRSA)?
200
They inhibit the reuptake of serotonin in the presynaptic neuron. They also desensitize the presynaptic serotonin autoreceptor involved in the negative feedback loop that normally inhibits serotonin release. Common adverse effects include GI complaints, insomnia, restlessness, headache and sexual dysfunction.
What are selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs)?
200
Retaining the blind when administering supplies in a clinical trial, when the two treatments cannot be made identical. Supplies are prepared for Treatment A (active and indistinguishable placebo) and for Treatment B (active and indistinguishable placebo). Subjects then take two sets of treatment; either A (active) and B (placebo), or A (placebo) and B (active).
What is a Double Dummy study technique?
200
It occurs secondary to rapid cell death that follows the administration of chemotherapy in patients with leukemia or lymphoma or in patients with high tumor burdens from other diseases that are also highly chemosensitive. Manifestations include hyperuricemia, hyperkalemia, hyperphosphatemia and secondary hypocalcemia. The primary management strategy is prevention with intravenous hydration and allopurinol.
What is tumor lysis syndrome?
300
Stroke risk stratification tools in patients with non-valvular atrial fibrillation and is used to determine the level of anticoagulation therapy.
What is CHADS2 and CHA2DS2-VASc?
300
Escherichia coli, Staphylococcus, Proteus mirabilis, Klebsiella pneumoniae, and Enterococcus are all common pathogens associated with this disease state.
What is a community-acquired urinary tract infection (UTI)?
300
It is a less-potent dopamine blocker than atypical antipsychotics and is a sertonin II antagonist. It is as effective as typical agents and is not commonly associated with extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS)/tardive dyskinesia; therefore is it considered the best alternative if tardive dyskinesia develops during therapy on typical antipsychotics. Its use has been limited secondary to its adverse effect profile (i.e. agranulocytosis).
What is clozapine?
300
Is designed to investigate whether a treatment is not clinically worse (no less effective, or inferior) than an existing treatment.
What is a noninferiority trial?
300
A ____________ is an agent that, on extravasation, can cause tissue necrosis. These antineoplastics include doxorubicin, daunorubicin, epirubicin, mitomycin, vincristine. It is recommended to administer these agents as injections rather than infusion (but some exceptions do exist).
What is a vesicant?
400
This class of drugs is considered first line treatment for dyslipidemia.
What are statins?
400
Pneumocystis carinni pneumonia, Cryptococcal meningitis, Toxoplasmosis, and Oral Candidiasis are all concidered __________________.
What are Opportunistic Infections?
400
This second generation antipsychotic causes the most weight gain, hypglycemia and lipid abnormalities of the class; however, it does not cause agranulocytosis.
What is olanzapine?
400
When subjects who do not adhere to allocated treatment are not included in the final analysis; only those who completed the trial and adhered to the protocol are analyzed.
What is per-protocol analysis?
400
___________ is an oncologic emergency that results from increased bone resorption with calcium release into the extracellular fluid; in addition, renal clearance of calcium is decreased.
What is hypercalcemia?
500
"MONA" plus a beta-blocker are initial management for this disease state.
What is Acute Coronary Syndrome(ACS)?
500
This agent is considered drug of first choice for invasive aspergillosis.
What is voriconazole?
500
This drug is considered drug of first choice for the management of bipolar disorder.
What is lithium?
500
A summary that uses explicit methods to perform a comprehensive literature search, critically appraise it, and synthesize the world literature on a specific topic. Instead of the subjects being human subjects, the individual studies are the "study subjects".
What is a systematic review or meta-analysis?
500
Hydration, Loop Diuretics, Bisphosphonates, Calcitonin, Steroids, Phosphate, Dialysis and Cyclooxygenase inhibitors are all treatment strategies for this oncologic emergency.