You're Getting On My Nerves!
No Brainer
Jog My Muscle Memory
P&Oh No!
Let's Get Physical (Therapy)!
100
Injury to this muscle and nerve can cause lateral scapular winging.
What is the trapezius and the spinal accessory nerve (CN XI)?
100
A patient with impaired fluency, intact comprehension, and impaired repetition has this type of aphasia.
What is nonfluent aphasia (Broca's aphasia)?
100
The Cozen's test assesses for tendonitis at this bony landmark.
What is the lateral epicondyle?
100
This lower extremity amputation is an ankle disarticulation with attachment of the heel pad to distal end of tibia.
What is Syme's amputation?
100
This therapeutic method is also known as the neurodevelopmental technique, whose goal is to normalize tone, inhibit abnormal primitive reflexes, and facilitate automatic reactions with subsequent normal development.
What is the Bobath technique?
200
Entrapment of the suprascapular nerve in this area would lead to isolated infraspinatus weakness.
What is the spinoglenoid notch?
200
This level on the Ranchos Los Amigos scale refers to patients exhibiting confused and appropriate behavior.
What is level VI?
200
You would measure between these two bony landmarks to assess leg length discrepancy.
What are the ASIS and medial malleolus?
200
An amputee who has unlimited household ambulation but limited community ambulation would be this K level.
What is K2?
200
Heterotopic ossification (HO) in the setting of spinal cord injury most commonly occurs in this joint.
What is the hip?
300
This is the rate of axonal regrowth after injury.
What is 1 mm/day or 1 inch/month?
300
At this stage of Brunnstrom's stroke recovery process, spasticity is typically at its highest.
What is stage 3?
300
A displaced femoral neck fracture with a partially intact joint capsule would be this stage on the Garden classification.
What is stage III?
I: Incomplete, nondisplaced
II: Complete, nondisplaced
III: Displaced, capsule intact
IV: Displaced, capsule ruptured
300
This AFO ankle joint modification would promote dorsiflexion (hint - spring or pin placement).
What is a spring in the anterior channel?
300
In a wheelchair with adjustable wheel axles, this adjustment would improve stability in a bilateral amputee patient.
What is posteriorly moving the axle?
400
The H-reflex on NCS is often used to monitor for this condition in the lower extremity (absence of this reflex can suggest presence of this condition).
What is S1 radiculopathy?
400
In patients with posttraumatic amnesia (PTA), severe disability is unlikely when the duration of PTA is within this time cutoff.
What is less than 2 months?
Coma
Severe disability unlikely when <2 weeks
Good recovery unlikely when >4 weeks
PTA
Severe disability unlikely when <2 months
Good recovery unlikely when >3 months
400
A patient with an AC joint injury who is found to have complete ruptures of the AC and CC ligaments, with his clavicle displaced superiorly above the acromion, and an increased CC distance of 25-100% compared to the contralateral side. What type is this injury as determined by the Rockwood classification?
What is type III?
400
A unilateral, transfemoral above-knee amputation (AKA) would increase energy expenditure by this percentage above normal.
What is 60-70%?
400
This is the transfer of heat that occurs by circulation (liquid or gas) over the surface of a body. Some examples include fluidotherapy and contrast baths.
What is convection?
500
Damage to this nerve would result in pure weakness of the flexor pollicis longus, flexor digitorum profundus, and pronator quadratus. Patients may exhibit a positive "OK" sign.
What is the anterior interosseus nerve (AIN)?
500
You're examining a patient in the ED who has sustained an MVA. He opens his eyes when spoken to. His words are nonsensical and have no conversational value. He pulls his fingers away from you when the nailbeds are pressed. This exam is consistent with a Glascow Coma Scale (GCS) of this number.
What is 10 (motor 4, verbal 3, eye 3)?
500
A 9-year old presents with wrist pain after a fall onto an outstretched arm, XRs demonstrate a fracture of the distal radius through the physis and epiphysis, giving her this type of Salter-Harris Fracture.
What is Salter-Harris Type III?
500
This type of cervicothoracic orthosis (CTO) is the most restrictive removable cervical brace, making it ideal for young patients with unstable cervical fractures.
What is the Minerva brace?
500
This type of therapeutic massage involves gliding of the hand from distal to proximal, with its mechanical effects aiming to relieve pain, increase lymphatic drainage, and reduce vascular congestion.
What is effleurage?