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100

Which of the following minerals is commonly associated with lead-zinc deposits? 

a. tremolite

b. sphalerite

c. anthracite

d. biotite 


b - sphalerite (Zn, Fe)S is an ore of zinc and is commonly found along with galena (PbS) in lead-zinc deposits 

100

which mineral is the principal source of iron ore? 

a. biotite

b. hematite

c. fayalite

d. pyrite 

b - hematite (Fe2O3) is the principal mineral at many of the world's largest iron mines

100

What is the correct order of a Wilson cycle? 

a. continental collision, ocean basin formation, continental rifting, subduction

b. continental rifting, ocean basin formation, subduction, continental collision 

c. continental collision, subduction, ocean basin formation, continental rifting

d. continental rifting, subduction, ocean basin formation, continental collision 

b - a Wilson cycle describes the important stages in the breakup of continents, subsequent formation of ocean basins, later development of subduction zones, and eventual continental collision 
100

which of the following types of information would be most useful in investigating the structural geology of an area that is prospective for oil and gas? 

a. geochemical data from igneous rocks

b. strikes and dips of bedding

c. orientations of metamorphic lineation

d. heat flow measurements 

b - strikes and dips of bedding could be useful in identifying structural traps. the other types of information are not particularly relevant to oil and gas exploration

100

Rocks from which of the following geological periods are most likely to prduce fossils? 

a. Archean

b. Paleoproterozoic 

c. Mesoproterozoic 

d. Neoproterozoic 

d - the earliest fossils appear in the fossil record during the Neoproterozoic era. the other options are all older than Neoproterozoic and therefore unlikely to contain fossils. 
200

Which of the following is not a potential cause of earthquakes? 

a. stresses at tectonic plate boundaries

b. movement of magma below surface

c. groundwater withdrawal 

d. injection wells

c - groundwater withdrawal is not a known cause of earthquakes, but all of the other options are

200

Which of the following types of coal is the highest rank? 

a. lignite 

b. bituminous

c. anthracite

d. subbituminous 

c - in order of increasing rank, the ranks of coal are lignite, subbituminous, bituminous, and anthracite 

200

Which of the following is not a characteristic of a Bouma sequence? 

a. graded bedding 

b. traction bedding 

c. lamination 

d. massive bedding 

d- a key characteristic of the Bouma sequences is thinly bedded and laminated sediments. Massive bedding therefore, is not a characteristic of Bouma sequences. 
200

What parameter is not in Darcy's law? 

a. hydraulic conductivity 

d. discharge

c. difference in hydraulic head 

d. specific capacity 

d - Darcy's law is the relationship between discharge (one side of the equation) and hydraulic conductivity and difference in hydraulic head (other side of the equation) 

200

What distance does 1 cm represent on a map that has a scale of 1:100,000? 

a. 0.1 km 

b. 1 km 

c. 10 km 

d. 100 km 

b- a distance of 1 cm on a map with a scale of 1:100,000 represents 100,000 cm, which is 1,000 m or 1 km 

300

In what type of environment do stromatolites form? 

a. volcanic 

b. eolian

c. deep marine

d. shallow marine 

d - stromatolites form in shallow water conditions where sunlight is plentiful. There are examples of both marine and lacustrine stromatolites.  
300

Geochemical analysis of a rock sample from an orebody reveals that it contains 0.2 grams/tonne of gold. What is the gold grade of the sample expressed in parts per million (ppm)? 

a. 0.02

b. 0.2

c. 2.0

d. 20.0

b - a tonne equals 1000 kg or 1 million grams. Grams/tonne and parts per million (ppm) are therefore equivalent ratios 

300

In which environment is turbidites formed? 

a. deep marine 

b. shallow marine 

c. fluvial 

d. eolian 

a - turbidites are deposited from turbidity currents, which are most common in deep marine settings 

300

Which of the following minerals is most soluble in water at neutral pH? 

a. Fe2O3

b. NaCl

c. FeS2

d. PbS

b - NaCl (halite or table salt) has a much grater solubility in water than Fe2O3 (hematite) FeS2 (pyrite) or galena (PbS)

300

Which of the following band ratios from satellite visible infrared imagery is most useful for identifying iron-stained surficial rocks? 

a. ratio of red to blue 

b. ratio of green to blue

c. ratio of red to green 

d. ratio of blue to green 

a - iron-stained rocks are various shades of red, so the most useful band ratio would be that of red to blue 

400

What is an interface between layers of contrasting seismic properties referred to as? 

a. reflector 

b. refractor 

c. retractor

d. respector 

A - on a seismic image, reflectors are interfaces (contacts) between layers that have different seismic properties 
400

A water well is drilled into an aquifer, and water flows out of the well with no pumping. Which of the following describes the aquifer? 

a. unconfined 

b. artesian 

c. low porosity 

d. low permeability 

b - an artesian well is one that flows to the surface without pumping 

400

A submarine landslide is referred to as which of the following? 

a. delta

b. lahar

c. olistostrome

d. alluvial fan 

c- oilistostromes are submarine landslides. "olistoliths" are the lasre clasts within an oilistostromes

400

Your company is installing a series of new deep-water wells. What is the most significant Enviornmental risk posed by drilling and installing the new wells? 

a. air contamination

b. soil contamination 

c. groundwater contamination 

d. surface water contamination 

c - particularly with deep wells, there is a risk of establishing a connection between shallow aquifers. (which may be contaminated) with deeper aquifers that may serve as a drinking water supply. Screened intervals should be carefully planned to mitigate this risk. 

400

Which of the following minerals is most comonly associated with hydrothermal deposits? 

a. diamond 

b. chalcopyrite

c. olivine 

d. dunite 

b - chalcopyrite is a common mineral is many hydrothermal ore deposits. diamond and olivine are associated with mafic magmatism but not necessarily hydrothermal activity. dunite is a type of rock, not a mineral 

500

which of the following correctly lists plutonic rocks in order from most mafic to most felsic? 

a. gabbro, granite, diorite

b. gabbro, diorite, granite

c. diorite, granite, gabbro 

d. granite, gabbro, diorite

b - gabbro is the most mafic type of plutonic rock, diorite is intermediate, and granite is the most felsic 

500

Which of the following correctly describes the grain size of a typical glacial moraine? 

a. poorly sorted 

b. poorly bedded

c. fine grained 

d. coarse grained 

a - glacial moraines typically do not involve processes that sort material by grain size, so they are commonly poorly sorted. 

500

Which of the following minerals is characterized by hexagonal symmetry? 

a. corundum 

b. halite

c. pyrite

d. andesite 

a - corundum has hexagonal symmetry 

500

Which of the following geologic materials typically has the highest hydraulic conductivity? 

a. gravel 

b. unfractured granite

c. silty 

d. clay 

a - hydraulic conductivity (units of length/time, i.e. velocity) is essentially the velocity of groundwater movement in a medium. In general, coarse-grained soils have grated hydraulic conductivity than fine-grained soils

500

A potential client has contacted you about conducting an investigation of a property they are considering purchasing. you know the current owner of the property on a personal basis. What should you do in this case? 

a. inform the current owner of potential interest in a purchase

b. recuse yourself from the investigation due to a conflict of interest 

c. tell neither of potential client nor the current owner about the potential conflict interest 

d. inform the potential client of your relationship with the current owner 

d - the most appropriate choice in this case is to notify the potential client about your relationship with the current owner. simply knowing the current owner may not necessarily constitute a conflict of interest 
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