Week 6: Endocrine
Week 7: Burns & Pressure Injuries
Week 8: Wounds & amputations
Week 9: Oncology
Week 10: Psychiatric & Cognitive Disorders
Pictures
100

Describe the skin presentation of a patient that has hypothyroidism.

  1. Answer: Thickened, cool, and dry skin 

  2. Resource: Goodman & Fuller pg 203

100

Which body region(s) account for a larger percentage of total body surface area in a child compared to an adult, according to the Rule of Nines for burn assessment?

  1. Answer: The head

Resource: O'Sullivan pg 946

100

 What is the MOST common cause of arterial ulcers?

  1. Answer: Arteriosclerosis 

  2. Resource: Myers pg 232

100

 Why is the lung the most common place for cancer to metastasize to?

  1. Answer: After the malignant cells are dumped into the circulatory system, it is the first place the mutated cells are filtered through capillaries 

  2. Resource: Goodman & Fuller pg 141

100

What BMI is recommended to initiate physical therapy with a patient suffering from an eating disorder?

  1. Answer: 18 or higher 

  2. Resource: Goodman & Fuller pg 7.68E54

100
  1. Which type of ulcer is seen in the image:

  1. Answer: Venous insufficiency ulcer 

  2. Resource: Myers Ch 10 

200

 What is the role of beta cells in the pancreas?

  1. Answer: Produce and secrete insulin for blood sugar management 

  2. Resource: Goodman & Fuller pg 22

200

 How would you describe the physical presentation of urticaria?

  1. Answer: Urticaria (hives) presents as smooth, slightly elevated patches known as wheals

  2. Resource: Goodman & Fuller pg 169

200

Which stages of pressure injuries are MOST likely to have undermining?

  1. Answer: Stage 3 and 4 ( more common in stage 4)

Resource: Myers pg 315

200

 What does N0 indicate in the TNM staging system for cancer?

  1. Answer: No regional lymph node involvement/swelling

  2. Resource: Goodman & Fuller pg 140

200

 What are the 3 affective disorders relating to disturbances in mood?

  1. Answer: Bipolar, depression, & mania 

  2. Resource: Goodman & Fuller pg 7.68E59

200
  1. What is the most likely underlying cause of the ulcer seen in the image?

  2.  

  1. Answer: Neuropathy 

  2. Resource: Myers Ch 15

300

What is the rage for the oral glucose tolerance test that indicates prediabetes?

  1. Answer: 140-199 mg/dL

Resource: Goodman & Fuller pg 768.e291 

300

What functional limitations might a PTA expect when treating a patient with systemic sclerosis?

  1. Answer: Decreased PROM

  2. Resource: Goodman & Fuller pg 187

300

What location(s) do venous insufficiency ulcers most commonly appear at?

  1. Answer: Medial malleolus, medial lower leg, areas of trauma

  2. Resource: Myers Table 11-6

300

 What is the most common type of cancer seen with men and the most common type of cancer seen with women?

  1. Answer: Men = prostate; Women = breast 

  2. Resource: Goodman & Fuller Figure 6.1 

300

Name 3 changes seen within the brain relating to Alzheimer’s Disease.

Answer:

  1. Irreversible cerebral cortex damage

  2. Destruction of neurons involved in Ach transmission 

  3. Amyloid plaques

  4. Neurofibrillary tangles

 

Resource: Goodman & Fuller pg 635

300
  1. What is the name of the amputation seen in the images?




  1. Answer: Tarsometatarsal aka Lisfranc

  2. Resource: O'Sullivan Table 22.1

400

What are 3 signs and symptoms of diabetic ketoacidosis?

  1. Answer: Acetone breath, dehydration, dry skins, weak and rapid pulse, Kussmaul respirations, polyuria, thirst, neurological abnormalities,

  2. Resource: Goodman & Fuller pg 237

400

Which 2 classifications of burns will blanch with rapid capillary refill?

  1. Answer: Epidermal Burn (or Superficial Burn) and Superficial Partial-Thickness Burn

  2. Resource: Myers pg 381

400

What is the underlying cause of the coloring seen with hemosiderin deposition?

  1. Answer: Build up of dead red blood cells 

  2. Resource: Myers pg 275

400

What two components of a poor diet lead to cancer the MOST?

  1. Answer: high fat and low fiber 

  2. Resource: Goodman & Fuller Box 6.2 

400

What are the common adverse side effects a PTA should monitor for in a patient taking anti-anxiety medication?

  1. Answer: Drowsiness, sedation, medication reliance/abuse, rebound anxiety 

  2. Resource: O’Sullivan pg 1030

400

What two signs are evident in this image of venous insufficiency?

  1. Answer: Hemosiderin deposition and lipodermatosclerosis 

  2. Resource: Myers Table 11-6

500

What group of medications is MOST likely to cause hypernatremia?

  1. Answer: Diuretics 

  2. Resource: Goodman & Fuller pg 32

500

 DAILY DOUBLE: (1) What does the Braden Scale assess for? (2) And name 4 out of the 6 components of the Braden Scale.

  1. Answer: The Braden Scale for Predicting Pressure Sore Risk consists of six subscales: mobility, activity, sensory perception, skin moisture, nutritional status, and friction and shear

  2. Resource: Myers pg 307

500

What does a positive result of the rubor of dependence test indicate?

  1. Answer: Arterial insufficiency 

  2. Resource  Myers pg 242

500

 What is the most significant risk factor for cancer?

  1. Answer: Age

  2. Resource: Goodman & Fuller pg 143

500

When discussing the upcoming discharge home your patient presents with tachycardia and reports “heart palpitations”. Do they have mild, moderate, or severe anxiety about going home?

  1. Answer: Moderate

  2. Resource: O’sullivan Table 26.2


500

What is the underlying pathology that results in the ECG wave form seen in the image?

  1. Answer: Hyperkalemia

  2. Resource: Goodman and Fuller table 2.5

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