Pathophysiology
PE/Labs/imaging
Sequelae
Management
V/Q
100

These three mechanisms predispose venous thrombosis

Virchow's triad: stasis, endothelial injury, hypercoagulability

100

Elevated ____ on labs is a cardiac biomarker that identifies RV strain in PE patients

BNP

100

The term ___ describes RV enlargement and/or failure resulting from primary disorder of the lung or pulmonary vasculature

Cor pulmonale

100

Primary prophylacitic treatment for PE is ___

Anticoagulation (warfarin, heparin)

100

The V/Q ratio is a measure of ____

Alveolar ventilation/perfusion

200

____ is the most common inherited thromophilia, and results in blood clots due to a point mutation leaving clotting factors resistant to breakdown.

Factor V Leiden

200

This bedside imaging modality assesses lower extremity veins for compressibility and thrombus, used to support diagnosis of PE

Doppler ultrasound

200

The classic EKG patterns associated with right heart strain from PE are ___

S1Q3T3 pattern, P Pulmonale (peak P waves)

200

____ therapy is utilized during acute onset PE that is causing hemodynamic instability

Tissue plasminogen activatory therapy

200

The normal overall V/Q ratio for the lungs at rest is ___

0.8

300

Most pulmonary emboli originate from thrombi in what location before traveling ot the pulmonary system?

Proximal deep veins of the lower extremities (femoral/iliac veins)

300

____lab detects ___ degradation products and is used in ruling out PE in low probability patients

D-Dimer test, fibrin 

300

This cardiac arrest rhythm — organized electrical activity on the monitor without a palpable pulse — is a classic presentation of sudden cardiac arrest caused by massive PE.

What is pulseless electrical activity (PEA)?



300

The anticoagnulant fondaparinux is a synthetic heparin used to inhibit ____, and is contraindicated in patients with ____

Factor Xa, severe renal impairment (CrCl under 30ml/min)

300

A pathological airway obstruction resulting in perfusion without ventilation and a V/Q = 0 is called ___

a shunt

400

A ____ is a large PE that gets stuck in the ____ blocking blood flow to the lungs

Saddle embolism, pulmonary arteries

400

____ is a sensitive form of imaging that is the test of choice for identifiying PE

CT angiogram

400

____ is the loss of lung volume caused by deflation of alveoli and collapse of part of the lung, occuring in ~20% of PE cases

Atelectasis

400

The therapeutic INR range for a patient on warfarin is between ___. Increased intake of dietary ____ can destabilize INR control

2.0 - 3; Vitamin K (leafy greens)

400

___ zone in the lungs with the highest V/Q ratio, and ___ has the lowest ration

apex (highest), base (lowest)

500

_____ syndrome describes a hypercoagulable state associated with malignancy

Trousseau syndrome, due to tumor-derived tissue factor and cytokine release

500

This clinical decision scale weighs criteria to assess the probability of PE adn guide the appropriate next steps in testing and imaging

Well's Criteria for PE: signs and symptoms, HR > 100BPM, recent immobilization or surgery, prior DVT, hemoptysis, malignancy, if PE is most likely diagnosis

500

A patient with a massive PE presents in obstructive shock with hypotension, tachycardia, and jugular venous distension. Explain the underlying right-heart mechanism producing this triad.

What is acute right ventricular strain/failure — the abrupt rise in pulmonary vascular resistance backs up pressure into the systemic veins (JVD) while reducing RV output to the left heart, causing hypotension?

500

Explain why warfarin is bridged with a fast-acting anticoagulant rather tahn started alone

warfarin first depletes the short half-life vitamin K–dependent anticoagulant proteins C and S before it fully depletes the procoagulant factors II, VII, IX, and X — creating a transient hypercoagulable state (with risk of warfarin-induced skin necrosis)  

500

In acute PE, ventilation of the affected lung segment will have a V/Q approaching ____, with the area called a ____

Infinity, Dead Space

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