Ventilator
Assessment & Diagnostics
Oxygen Delivery Devices
Procedures
Medications & Interventions
100

This ventilator setting determines the amount of air delivered with each breath and is typically set at 6-8mL/kg of ideal body weight.

What is tidal volume?

100

What is the preferred DI study for a pregnant woman with shortness of breath?

What is a VQ scan?

100
Name the type of cannula you would use for a patient who required 8L of oxygen per minute.

What is a salter cannula?

100

Name a common indication for chest tube placement.

What is pneumothorax, hemothorax, and tension pneumothorax?

100

Name 3 medications you would expect to administer to an asthmatic patient.

What is a bronchodilator, PO/IV/inhaled steroids, and magnesium sulfate?

200

This assessment helps identify a right main stem intubation

What is diminished or absent breath sounds on the left side 

200

This ETCO2 and SpO2 level is what would you expect to see in a patient with COPD

What is an ETCO2 >45mmHg and SpO2 <92%?

200

Name the type of mask that allows for precise controlled oxygen concentrations?

What is a venturi mask?

**This is different than a non-rebreather because it does not have the oxygen reservoir.

200

Name the procedure performed when fluid is drained from the pleural cavity.

What is a thoracentesis?

200

Name 3 titratable drips that can be used for sedation while on the ventilator.

What is propofol, fentanyl, versed, precedex, and ketamine?

300

These nursing interventions reduce ventilator-associated pneumonia risk

What is oral care with chlorhexidine, head-of-bed elevation, and PPI?

300

This bedside assessment finding often indicates airway narrowing seen in conditions like asthma or COPD exacerbations.

What is wheezing - high pitched, musical sounds heard on expiration?

300
Describe the difference between BiPAP and CPAP.

What is bilevel positive airway pressure and continuous positive airway pressure?

**BiPAP - different pressure levels for the inhale and exhale

**CPAP - same pressure level for inhale and exhale 

300

Describe what the bubbling in the water seal chamber in an atrium indicates.

What is a leak in the chest tube system?

300

Name 1 paralytic agent and 1 sedative agent for rapid sequence intubation (RSI) in the correct order you would administer them.

What is rocuronium, vecuronium, succinylcholine, etomidate, propofol, versed, and ketamine?

400

If a ventilated patient suddenly deteriorates, this action may be lifesaving.

What is disconnecting the ventilator and manually bagging the patient?

400

Name at least 3 signs and symptoms of respiratory distress.

What is grunting, tachypnea, cyanosis, nasal flaring, use of accessory muscles, retractions, and wheezing?

400

Name 3 ways we can confirm endotracheal tube placement.

What is chest XR, end tidal color changer (after 5-6 breaths), and auscultation (over the epigastrum and all lung fields)?

400

Name 3 indications for a cricothorotomy.

What is facial trauma, burns/inhalation, obstruction from a foreign object, edema in the oropharynx, unrelenting spasm of the jaw/clenched teeth?

400

Name 2 medications that are commonly utilized in conjunction with BiPAP for flash pulmonary edema.

What is nitroglycerin, lasix, and bumex?

500

These patient-related causes can trigger a high peak pressure alarm.

What are coughing, biting the tube, bronchospasm, or decreased lung compliance?

500

Interpret the following arterial blood gas:

pH: 7.28

PaCO2:58mmHg

HCO3: 26mEq/L

PaO2: 60mmHg

O2 saturation: 88% on 4L

What is uncompensated respiratory acidosis?

500

Name 2 contraindications for using a nasopharyngeal airway (NPA).

What is facial trauma, gag reflex, and conscious patients?

500

This is the anatomical location for a needle decompression/thoracostomy.

What is the 4th intercostal space midaxillary line?

500

This positioning intervention, used in moderate to severe ARDS, improves oxygenation by promoting better ventilation-perfusion matching and recruitment of posterior lung segments.

What is prone positioning?

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