Civil Procedure
Con Law
Contracts
Criminal Law
Evidence
Real Property
Torts
100

What is required to show that work-product material is discoverable? 

The party seeking discovery of the work-product material may show a substantial need and an inability, absent substantial hardship, to obtain equivalent information by other means
100

When a federal and state law are mutually exclusive which law will govern? 

The federal law preempts the state law. 

100

How long may a merchant's firm offer be irrevocable?

A merchant's firm offer can be irrevocable for no longer than three months without consideration

100

What are the two elements of the actus reus element of conspiracy under the modern rule?

The modern rule for the actus reus element of conspiracy requires both: 

1. an agreement between two or more parties 

and 

2. an overt act in furtherance of the conspiracy 

100

What are the two elements of the "present sense impression" hearsay exception? 

A "present sense impression" is admissible if a declarant makes a statement: 

1. describing or explaining an event or condition 

and 

2. during or immediately following the event or condition 

100

What are the two reasons a landlord may spend a security deposit? 

A landlord may use a security deposit: 

1. as a remedy for a tenant's failure to pay rent 

and/or 

2. to repair damage to the premises beyond normal wear and tear 

100

What are the four elements of negligence?

The elements of negligence are: 

1. duty of care 

2. breach of duty 

3. actual and proximate cause 

and 

4. damages 

200

What seven pre-answer defenses are available under FRCP 12(b)? 

The seven pre-answer defenses available under FRCP 12(b) are: 

1. lack of subject matter jurisdiction 

2. lack of personal jurisdiction 

3. improper venue 

4. insufficient process 

5. insufficient service of process 

6. failure to state a claim upon which relief can be granted 

and 

7. failure to join necessary parties 

200

Which factors will the court balance in determining whether a regulatory taking has occurred? 

To determine whether a regulatory taking has occurred, courts will balance the: 

1. impact of the regulation on the claimant; diminution in value to the owner 

and 

2. extent to which the regulation interferes with distinct investment-backed expectations

200

When is a valid revocation effective? 

A revocation is effective only when received by the offeree

200

What crimes require proof of specific intent

1. assault 

2. attempt 

3. burglary

4. conspiracy

5. embezzlement

6. false pretenses 

7. first-degree premeditated murder 

8. forgery 

9. larceny 

10. robbery 

11. solicitation 

200

Which two types of demonstrations are generally not permitted in the courtroom? 

It is generally not permissible to allow in-court demonstrations that: 

1. show the effect of a bodily injury, such as the existence of a limp or extreme pain, to avoid dramatizing the injury or inflame jurors' minds 

and/or 

2. would be under the sole control of the witness because they may not be subject to effective cross-examination 

200

What three remedies are available to a buyer when the title is unmarketable at closing? 

A buyer's three remedies for a title that is still marketable at closing are: 

1. rescission of the contract 

2. specific performance 

and 

3. damages

200

What are the common law defenses to defamation? 

The common law defenses to defamation are: 

1. consent 

2. truth 

and 

3. privilege including absolute and qualified privilege 

300

When may a party intervene as a matter of right? 

Intervention allows a non-party to join an already pending lawsuit 

A party may intervene as a matter of right if either: 

1. an absentee's interest will be harmed if not joined and no existing party will adequately represent that interest 

or 

2. the absentee had an unconditional statutory right 

300

Which three requirements will cause a person's affiliation with an illicit group to lose the freedom of association? 

Freedom of association is not protected if the person is: 

1. an active member of an organization participating in illegal activities 

2. aware of the group's illegal activities 

and 

3. has the specific intent to further those illegal activities 

300

What is the "merchant's confirmatory memo rule" and how does it affect the Statute of Frauds written requirement? 

The UCC Statute of Frauds may be satisfied when two merchants enter an oral agreement and within a reasonable time one of them sends the other a written confirmation of the agreement. In such a circumstance, the Statute is satisfied against the recipient merchant if: 

1. they have reason to recognize the confirmation's contents 

and 

2. fail to object to the confirmation within 10 days of receipt 

300

What are the requirements for using deadly force in self-defense? 

Deadly force may only be used in self-defense if a person: 

1. is not at fault (not the initial aggressor) 

2. is confronted with unlawful force against them 

and 

3. reasonably believes they face an imminent threat of great bodily harm or death if they do not respond with deadly force

300

What are the elements of the "statements against interest" hearsay exception? 

A "statement against interest" requires: 

1. the statement to have been against the declarant's pecuniary, proprietary, or penal interest when made 

2. the declarant to have had personal knowledge of the facts 

3. the declarant to have been aware that the statement was against their interest and had no motive to lie 

and 

4. the declarant to now be unavailable as a witness 

300

What are the requirements for the burden of a real covenant to run with the land? 

The five elements for the burden of a real covenant to run with the land are: 

1. intent by the original parties for the burden to run 

2. horizontal privity

3. vertical privity 

4. the burden touches and concerns the land 

and 

5. notice of the burden for subsequent purchasers

300

What are the requirements for the burden of a real covenant to run with the land? 

The five elements for the burden of a real covenant to run with the land are: 

1. intent by the original parties for the burden to run 

2. horizontal privity

3. vertical privity 

4. the burden touches and concerns the land 

and 

5. notice of the burden for subsequent purchasers

400

What are the ways a new claim or defense may "relate back" to the date of a timely-filed pleading? 

A new claim or defense will "relate back" to the date of the original pleading when: 

1. the statute of limitations permits relation back 

and 

2. the new claim or defense derives from the same transaction, conduct, or occurrence that was described in the timely-filed claim

400

May Congress regulate noncommercial or noneconomic activity of intrastate commerce? 

Yes. Congress may regulate intrastate noncommercial or noneconomic activity, but only if the activity has a direct and substantial effect on interstate commerce.

400

What are the exceptions to the suretyship provision of the Statute of Frauds? 

The Statute of Frauds suretyship provision does not apply if: 

1. the promise is made to the debtor 

2. the promisor promises to be primarily liable for a third person's obligation 

or 

3. the promisor's main purpose in guaranteeing the obligation of another was to secure a pecuniary benefit for themselves 

400

What is the standard for the Model Penal Code Test for insanity? 

Under the Model Penal Code, a defendant may be acquitted if, due to a mental disease or defect, they lacked the substantial capacity to either: 

1. appreciate the wrongfulness of their conduct 

or 

2. conform their conduct to the requirements of the law

400

What are the exceptions to the best evidence rule? 

The best evidence rule does not apply (the original writing does not need to be produced) when: 

1. the facts to be proved exist independently of the writing (e.g., a witness has independent knowledge of something that was memorialized in writing) 

2. the writing is only of minor or collateral importance 

3. the writing contains voluminous records that can be summarized 

or 

4. the writing is in the form of a certified public record 

400

Is the presumption that a deed was delivered rebuttable? And when will delivery be presumed?

Yes. The presumption that a deed was delivered is rebuttable. Delivery will be presumed when: 

1. the deed is handed to the grantee

2. the deed is acknowledged by the grantor before a notary 

or 

3. the deed is recorded

400

What is required to prove strict products liability on a manufacturing defect? 

To prove strict products liability based on a manufacturing defect the plaintiff must establish that: 

1. the defendant is a commercial supplier 

2. the product is not in the condition that the manufacturer intended at the time it left the manufacturer's control 

3. the defective product was the actual and proximate cause of plaintiff's injury 

and 

4. the plaintiff suffered damages 

500

What are the two requirements for an appellate court to grant an interlocutory appeal? 

An appellate court will grant an interlocutory appeal when: 

1. the trial court certifies that the order involves a controlling question of law as to which there is substantial ground for difference of opinion and that na immediate appeal from the order may materially advance the ultimate termination of the litigation 

and 

2. the appellate court exercises its discretion to grant the interlocutory appeal 

500

What are the ways a statute may constitute an "ex post facto" law? 

In general, a statute is deemed an "ex post facto" law by retroactively altering the criminal law if it: 

1. makes criminal an act that was not a crime when committed 

2. prescribes greater punishment for a crime after its commission 

3. decreases the amount of evidence required for conviction 

or 

4. extends the statute of limitations for a crime as to which the previously applicable statute of limitations has already expired 

500

What are the exceptions to the parol evidence rule? 

Parol evidence may be introduced to prove: 

1. defects in the formation of the contract (such as fraud, duress, mistake, or illegality) 

2. parties' intent regarding ambiguous terms in the contract 

3. problems with the consideration (e.g., the consideration was never paid) 

4. a prior valid agreement that is incorrectly reflected in the written instrument in question 

5. a related agreement, if it does not contradict or change the main contract 

6. a condition that had to occur before contract performance was due 

or 

7. subsequent modification of the contract 

500

What aggravating factors elevate assault to aggravated assault? 

Assault may become aggravated if the defendant: 

1. uses a deadly weapon 

or 

2. intends to rape or murder

500

When is evidence of liability insurance admissible? 

Evidence of liability insurance is admissible: 

1. to show ownership or control 

2. for impeachment purposes 

or 

3. as part of an admission 

500

What are the three duties of a life tenant? 

The three duties of a life tenant include: 

1. not committing waste

2. payment of all current operating expenses of the property 

and 

3. payment of the mortgage interest 

500

What are the elements of qualified privilege under defamation law? 

The four elements of qualified privilege are: 

1. reasonable belief that an important interest is protected 

2. the statement heard is reasonably relevant to the interest protected 

3. a reasonable belief that the person to whom the statement is published can protect the interest 

and 

4. some relationship between the publisher and the person to whom the statement is published

M
e
n
u