Which of the following is recommended for HIV prevention in high-risk individuals?
A) Pre-exposure prophylaxis (PrEP)
B) Annual flu vaccination
C) Daily multivitamins
D) Monthly acyclovir
What is A) Pre-exposure prophylaxis (PrEP)?
Which of the following gives the best estimation of total iron stores in the body?
A. Serum Iron
B. Ferritin
C. Total Iron Binding Capacity
D. Transferrin Saturation
What is B. Ferritin?
Which GLP-1 is FDA approved for diabetes and injected daily?
A. Saxenda
B. Ozempic
C. Rybelsus
D. Victoza
What is D. Victoza?
Which of the following is the recommended diet for patients with hypertension?
A. My Plate Method
B. DASH Diet
C. Sodium and fluid restriction diet
D. Lowfat Diet
What is B. DASH diet?
A vial contains 425 mg of ampicillin powder. The vial is reconstituted to a final volume of 9.5 mL. What is the concentration in mg/mL?
A. 40 mg/mL
B. 45 mg/mL
C. 50 mg/mL
D. 55 mg/mL
What is B. 45 mg/mL?
A patient presents to the ED with lacerations and deep punctures after a dog bite. Which antibiotic is most appropriate for coverage?
A. Amoxicillin-clavulanate
B. Ceftriaxone
C. Penicillin
D. Vancomycin
What is A. Amoxicillin-clavulanate?
Patients on dialysis sometimes have sodium zirconium cyclosilicate listed on their medication list. What element does sodium zirconium cyclosilicate remove from the body?
A. Phosphorus
B. Calcium
C. Potassium
D. Urea
What is C. Potassium?
Which medication can be used for PMDD?
Select all that apply:
A. Fluoxetine
B. Trazodone
C. Mirtazepine
D. Escitalopram
What is A. Fluoxetine?
On the NAPLEX, sometimes the questions that ask select all that apply only have 1 correct answer, WATCH out for this!!
A patient with asthma is prescribed inhaled corticosteroids. Which of the following is a common local adverse effect of this therapy?
A. Osteoporosis
B. Hypertension
C. Tachycardia
D. Oral candidiasis
What is D. Oral candidiasis?
A 80 kg insulin-naive patient is starting basal-bolus insulin therapy. The recommended TDD is 0.5 units/kg/day. What is the bolus (mealtime) insulin dose per meal?
A. 7 units
B. 10 units
C. 13 units
D. 15 units
What is C. 13 units?
A patient with HIV (CD4 150) is receiving prophylaxis against opportunistic infections. Which regimen reduces the risk of Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia (PJP) and toxoplasmosis?
A. Trimethoprim–Sulfamethoxazole
B. Fluconazole
C. Isoniazid
D. Acyclovir
What is A. Trimethoprim–Sulfamethoxazole?
What is the maximum dose of tenecteplase for ischemic stroke and acute myocardial infarction, respectively?
A. 50 mg and 25 mg
B. 25 mg and 50 mg
C. 50 mg and 100 mg
D. 100 mg and 50 mg
What is B. 25 mg and 50 mg?
Name at least 3 side effects of oxybutynin.
100 POINTS FOR EACH CORRECT SIDE EFFECT
MAX 300 POINTS
What is anticholinergic effects?
Dry mouth, dry eyes/blurred vision, urinary retention, constipation, tachycardia, sedation, dizziness, cognitive impairment
A patient with acute asthma exacerbation uses albuterol frequently but still has symptoms. Which of the following is the next best step in long-term control therapy?
A. Start an inhaled corticosteroid for maintenance therapy
B. Increase the dose of albuterol
C. Add azithromycin as the patient likely has an infection
D. Start montelukast as monotherapy
What is A. Start an inhaled corticosteroid for maintenance therapy?
A 68 kg patient with type 2 diabetes has been receiving an IV insulin infusion for DKA. The provider would like to transition to SQ insulin to prepare the patient for discharge. Over the past 6 hours, the patient has received a total of 18 units of insulin. What is the bolus (mealtime) insulin dose per meal?
A. 2 units
B. 5 units
C. 7 units
D. 15 units
What is B. 5 units?
A patient develops an extensive rash after IV vancomycin, along with pruritus and flushing. This is most likely:
A. “Red man syndrome”
B. Anaphylaxis
C. Stevens-Johnson syndrome
D. MRSA infection
What is A. “Red man syndrome?"
Name the 4 drugs classes that are GDMT (guideline-directed medical therapy) used to decrease HFrEF morbidity and mortality.
100 POINTS FOR EACH CORRECT DRUG CLASS
MAX 400 POINTS
What is an ARNI/ACEi/ARB, SGLT2i, Beta blocker and Aldosterone receptor antagonist?
Which of the following statements about SGLT-2 Inhibitors is FALSE?
A. They are associated with a high risk of hypoglycemia
B. They may cause urinary tract infections or Fournier's gangrene
C. They may increase frequency of urination
D. They may increase a patient's risk for Major Adverse Cardiovascular Events (MACE)
What is D. They may INCREASE a patient's risk for Major Adverse Cardiovascular Events (MACE)?
A patient taking warfarin is counseled on diet. Which of the following dietary recommendations is most appropriate?
A. Avoid all vitamin K containing foods
B. Maintain consistent intake of vitamin K
C. Increase vitamin K intake each day
D. Take vitamin K supplements with their warfarin
What is B. Maintain consistent intake of vitamin K?
A new antibiotic was studied in a clinical trial. Among 1,875 patients receiving the drug, 68 developed a severe rash, while among 2,125 patients on placebo, 21 developed the same adverse effect. What is the NNH?
A. 37
B. 38
C. 39
D. 40
What is A. 37?
NNH, always round DOWN!
Which one of the following antiretroviral medications requires an acidic environment for absorption and is contraindicated for use with a proton pump inhibitor?
A. Fostemavir
B. Rilpivirine
C. Doravirine
D. Bictegravir
What is B. Rilpivirine?
A 62-year-old man with chronic kidney disease stage 3 and heart failure with reduced ejection fraction (HFrEF) presents for blood pressure management. Which of the following antihypertensive medications is preferred in this patient for both cardiac and renal protection?
A. Nifedpine
B. Lisinopril
C. Sotalol
D. Spironolactone
What is B. Lisinopril?
Which of the following patients CAN safely take combined oral contraceptives?
A) 32-year-old woman with migraine with aura
B) 40-year-old woman with a history of DVT
C) 38-year-old woman who smokes 3 packs/day
D) 28-year-old woman with well-controlled hypothyroidism
What is D. 28-year-old woman with well-controlled hypothyroidism?
A 50 YO man presents with severe epigastric pain radiating to the back, nausea, and vomiting. The patient reports his last bowel movement was 5 hours prior to presenting to the ED.
Labs: Lipase 950 (↑), all other labs WNL
CT: No acute findings
What is the most likely condition?
A) Acute hepatitis
B) Peptic ulcer disease
C) Acute pancreatitis
D) Small bowel obstruction
What is C) Acute pancreatitis?
In a randomized clinical trial, 9,500 patients were assigned to receive a new drug or placebo and followed for 3 years. In the treatment group, 135 out of 5,200 participants experienced a myocardial infarction (MI), compared to 180 out of 4,300 in the placebo group. What is the relative risk (RR) of MI for the treatment group compared to the placebo group?
A. 0.40
B. 0.62
C. 0.75
D. 1.10
What is B. 0.62?