Safety

PPE

100

What does the abbreviation PPE stand for:

What is Personal Protective Equipment

200

What type of protection is needed when you are exposed to hazards from flying particles?

What is Eye protection and Face protection Explanation OSHA requires that eye or face protection be provided to employees who are exposed to hazards from molten metal, flying particles, acids or caustic liquids, chemical gases or vapors, liquid chemicals, infected material, or dangerous light radiation.

300

Which class of hard hats in the list below can save you from high voltage shocks as well as provide penetration and impact resistance?

What Is Class A and Class B. Explanation Hard hats fit into three industrial classes: - Class A hard hats resist impact and penetration and protect against electric shocks (up to 2,200 volts) - Class B hard hats offer the greatest protection against high voltage shocks and burns (up to 20,000 volts). They also save workers from penetration and impact hazards caused by falling/flying objects. - Class C hard hats offer only impact protection and lightweight comfort but do not provide any protection against electrical hazards.

400

When working in areas where there is a potential for head injury from falling objects, you should…

What is Wear head protection. Explanation Hard hats protect workers from impact and penetration hazards. They also offer protection against electrical shock and burn hazards.

500

(True or False) If you wear prescription lenses, you do not need additional eye protection against occupational eye hazards.

What is False. Explanation According to OSHA, prescription lenses are not sufficient protection against occupational eye and face hazards. Employees using corrective lenses must either wear prescription-equipped eye protection, or wear additional eye protection over the prescription lenses or glasses. Thus, it should be made sure that any eye protection does not obstruct the positioning of the prescription lenses.

Fire Safety

100

True or False Even when there are no signs of a fire, you should respond to every fire alarm as if it were real.

What is True. Explanation: Every fire alarm should receive the same reaction, regardless of whether there is actually a fire or not. Even when you do not see any signs of fire, you should take appropriate steps when an alarm is sounded. Moreover, all false alarms should be reported to the authorities.

200

True or False All workplaces need to provide portable fire extinguishers

What is False. Explanation: According to OSHA, employers are not required to provide portable fire extinguishers in the office. But if they do, they must set up an educational program to acquaint employees with the general principles of fire extinguisher use.

300

Which of the following fire extinguishers is used to put out fires caused by flammable liquids? (A) Class A water fire extinguishers (B) Class B carbon dioxide fire extinguisher (C) Class C dry chemical fire extinguisher (D) None of the above

What is Class B carbon dioxide fire extinguisher. Explanation: Flammable liquids include oils, gasoline, paints, grease, lacquers, and solvents.

400

Which of the following is the acronym describing the correct sequence of using a fire extinguisher? (A) PULL (B) PUSH (C) PASS (D) None of the above

What is (C) PASS. Explanation: The extinguisher should be discharges using the P.A.S.S technique – pull, aim, squeeze, and sweep. - Pull the pin to break the tamper seal. - Aim low, pointing the nozzle of the fire extinguisher at the base of the fire. - Squeeze the handle to release the extinguishing agent. - Sweep from one side to the other at the base of the fire till it extinguishes. - Repeat in the event of re-ignition.

500

Where should you aim a fire extinguisher nozzle when putting out a fire. (A) At the top of the fire (B) At the base of the fire (C) At the center of the fire (D) Away from the fire

What is B) At the base of the fire. Explanation: You should always aim at the base of the fire and never the flames. To put out a fire, it is important that you extinguish the fuel. If you aim at the flames, the extinguishing agent will fly through them without putting out the fire.

Lockout/Tagout

100

A workplace lockout/tagout standard is required to... A) Prevent the release of hazardous energy while servicing or maintaining machines (B) Lock the workplace to prevent theft of assets (C) Tag underperforming employees and lock them in a room (D) None of the above

What is (A) Prevent the release of hazardous energy while servicing or maintaining machines

200

True or False. All workplaces need to have a written lockout/tagout program in place.

What is False. Explanation Only workplaces where employees are engaged in maintenance or repair work need a written lockout/tagout program.

300

True or False. Locks are the only approved means for locking out a machine.

What is False. Explanation Locks, chains, wedges, key blocks, adapter pins, self-locking fasteners, or other hardware can be used to isolate, secure or block machines or equipment from energy sources.

400

Your employer must retrain you when there is a change in… (A) Work assignments (B) Process or machinery, either of which poses a new hazard (C) Energy control procedures (D) All of the above

What is (D) All of the above. Explanation According to OSHA, employers must retrain employees (both authorized and affected) when there’s a change in work assignments; a change in hazard due to alteration in process; a change in machinery; or a change in energy control procedures. Employers are also required to provide retraining when an employer believes (or a periodic inspection reveals) that there exist shortcomings in a worker’s knowledge and/or the application of energy control procedures.

500

Who may remove the lock from the machine? (A) An affected employee (B) The security manager (C) The person who closed the lock (D) The employee who sees the person close the lock

What is (C) The person who closed the lock. Explanation According to OSHA, Standard No. 1910.147(e)(3), “Each lockout or tagout device shall be removed from each energy isolating device by the employee who applied the device. Exception to paragraph (e)(3): When the authorized employee who applied the lockout or tagout device is not available to remove it, that device may be removed under the direction of the employer, provided that specific procedures and training for such removal have been developed, documented and incorporated into the employer's energy control program.”

Back Safety

100

True or False. Lower back pain is the most common cause of job-related disability worldwide.

What is (A) True

200

Back injuries are the leading cause of work-related disabilities for people under the age of… (A) 45 (B) 50 (C) 55 (D) None of the above

What is (A) 45. Explanation Back injuries are most common among workers engaged in physically demanding jobs. Injuries of this sort are a leading cause of work-related disability and limitation among workers aged 45 and below.

300

The spine is a column of approximately... (A) 30 bones (B) 15 bones (C) 20 bones (D) None of the above

What is (D) None of the above. Explanation The Mayfield Clinic for Brain and Spine states, “Vertebrae are the 33 individual bones that interlock with each other to form the spinal column. The vertebrae are numbered and divided into regions: 7 cervical, 12 thoracic, 5 lumbar, 5 sacral, and 4 coccygeal. Only the top 24 bones are moveable; the vertebrae of the sacrum and coccyx are fused.”

400

Which of the following causes back injuries? (A) Lifting objects incorrectly (B) Being physically unfit (C) Poor posture (D) All of the above

What is (D) All of the above. Explanation As per OSHA’s Technical Manual on Back Disorders and Injuries, back injuries are the result of overexertion of muscles, disks, tendons, or due to the collective effect of minimal stamina (and unhealthy weight); poor posture; and reaching, bending or twisting while lifting.

500

What percent of the American population will suffer some kind of back pain in their lifetimes? (A) 50 (B) 80 (C) 99 (D) 65

What is (B) 80. Explanation According to the American Academy of Orthopedic Surgeons, 80% of Americans will experience some kind of back pain in their lives.

First Aid

100

True or False. You are not required to ask a victim’s permission to perform first aid.

What is (B) False. Explanation Practitioners of first aid need to obtain advance consent or permission, the so-called “expressed consent” from the patient. To obtain consent, you should identify yourself, describe your level of medical training, and ask if it is all right to help. While administering first aid to an unresponsive victim, consent is implied or assumed, given that a reasonable person would grant permission to receive first aid care if able to do so.

200

Which of the following should you do first when your co-worker has suffered an electrical shock? (A) Move the victim away from the electrical source with a help of a non-conducting object (B) Shut off the source of electricity if possible (C) Check the victim’s breathing and pulse. Begin CPR if necessary (D) Lay the victim down with his/her head lower than the rest of the body (E) Call 911 or bring in an emergency medical team

What is E) Call 911 or bring in an emergency medical team. Explanation Centers of Disease Control and Prevention, CDC specifies the following steps (in this order) to be performed if someone around you has suffered an electrical shock. •Look first. Don’t touch. The person may still be in contact with the electrical source. Touching the person may pass the current through you. •Call or have someone else call 911 or emergency medical help. •Turn off the source of electricity if possible. If not, move the source away from you and the affected person using a non-conducting object made of cardboard, plastic or wood. •Once the person is free of the source of electricity, check the person's breathing and pulse. If either has stopped or seems dangerously slow or shallow, begin cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) immediately. •If the person is faint or pale or shows other signs of shock, lay the person down with the head slightly lower than the trunk of his or her body and the legs elevated. •Don’t touch burns, break blisters, or remove burned clothing. Electrical shock may cause burns inside the body, so be sure the person is taken to a doctor.

300

Which of these is a symptom of a heatstroke? (A) Rapid, strong pulse (B) Hallucinations (C) Throbbing headache (D) High body temperature (E) All of the above

What is (E) All of the above. Explanation According to the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention, a person’s body temperature can rise to 106°F or higher within a span of 10 to 15 minutes, in case of a heatstroke. In the absence of emergency treatment, a person suffering from heatstroke can also die or become physically impaired. In case you find the above symptoms in your co-worker, CDC advises that you call 911 and inform your supervisor. Take the patient to a cool, shaded area; spray, sponge, or soak him/her in water; and fan his/her body.

400

What is the correct order of airway, breathing, and circulation in the CPR process? (A) Chest compressions, airway, breathing (B) Airway, breastbone, chest (C) Airway, breathing, circulation (D) Back, circulation, airway

What is A) Chest compressions, airway, breathing. Explanation In 2010, the American Heart Association (AHA) changed CPR’s longstanding A-B-C (Airway, Breathing, Compressions) sequence to C-A-B (Compressions, Airway, Breathing.)

500

At which water temperature should you bathe frostbitten skin? (A) At 32 F (0°C) (B) Between 104 to 107.6 F (40 to 42°C) (C) Between 120 to 150 F (50 to 70°C) (D) You should never submerge frostbite into water

What is (B) Between 104 to 107.6 F (40 to 42°C). Explanation Frostbitten body parts should be warmed gradually in water that is 104 to 107.6°F (40° to 42°C). Additionally, you can wrap or cover the frostbite in a warm blanket. Don't use direct heat, such as a stove, heat lamp, fireplace or heating pad, because these can cause burns before you feel them on your numb skin.