Municipal Bonds & Structures
New Issue Process, Underwriting & Syndicates
Secondary Trading, UPC, & Recordkeeping
MSRB Rules & Compliance
Economics, Interest Rates & Suitability
100

This type of bond has no periodic interest payments and accretes toward par.
A. Premium bond
B. OID bond
C. VRDO
D. Term bond

What is an OID (Original Issue Discount) bond?

100

This type of municipal underwriting involves public bidding.

 What is competitive underwriting?


100

This term describes a dealer stating it does not recognize a reported trade.

What is a DK (“don’t know”) notice?

100

This MSRB rule requires dealers to treat customers fairly and not engage in deceptive practices.

What is Rule G-17?

100

This is the formula for tax-equivalent yield (TEY).

What is: Tax-free Yield ÷ (1 – Tax Rate)?

200

This yield must ALWAYS be disclosed on confirmations for callable premium munis.

(Hint: The Worst That Can Happen)

What is yield-to-worst?


200

Which order type has highest priority?
A. Group net
B. Designated
C. Member
D. Presale

What are presale orders?

200

Which rule governs inter-dealer trade comparison?
A. G-12
B. G-26
C. G-34
D. G-15

What is Rule G-12?

200

Which rule mandates best execution?
A. G-30
B. G-17
C. G-18
D. G-23

What is Rule G-18?

200

A steep yield curve signals:
A. Recession
B. Strong growth ahead
C. Fed tightening
D. High unemployment

What is strong future growth?

300

Which municipal structure resets rates frequently AND includes a put feature?
A. ARS
B. Variable Rate Demand Obligation (VRDO)
C. Zero-coupon muni
D. TIF bond

What is a Variable Rate Demand Obligation (VRDO)?

300

This is the “sales credit” portion a dealer earns from the sale of a new issue muni.

What is the takedown?

300

This rule controls customer account transfers and validations.

What is Rule G-26?

300

This rule governs confirmations and requires disclosure of principal vs. agency capacity.

What is Rule G-15?

300

This investment protects purchasing power from rising inflation.

What are TIPS?

400

This relationship describes how yields line up on a discount bond.

What is: YTC > YTM > CY > NY?

400

Which rule governs syndicate practices?
A. G-11
B. G-15
C. G-30
D. G-34

What is Rule G-11?

400

This recordkeeping rule describes WHAT records must be kept.

What is Rule G-8?

400

This rule governs fair and reasonable prices and markups.

What is Rule G-30?

400

An Investor in 37% bracket benefits MOST from:
A. Corporate bonds
B. AMT bonds
C. Non-AMT munis
D. Treasuries

What are non-AMT muni bonds?

500

This bond type is secured by property taxes and requires voter approval in many states.

What is a GO (General Obligation) bond?

500

This document outlines syndicate liability, expenses, and priority of orders.

What is the Agreement Among Underwriters (AAU)?

500

Which rule dictates HOW LONG muni records are retained?
A. G-8
B. G-9
C. G-12
D. G-21

What is Rule G-9?

500

Which rule covers political contributions?
A. G-23
B. G-37
C. G-20
D. G-42

What is Rule G-37?

500

This action by the Federal Reserve decreases money supply and raises interest rates.

What is tightening monetary policy?

600

This muni structure refinances outstanding debt using proceeds invested in SLGS or Treasuries.

What is an advance refunding?

600

This rule requires the managing underwriter to obtain CUSIPs.

What is Rule G-34

600

These documents must be retained for the life of the firm.

What are organizational documents / partnership agreements?

600

This rule prohibits a financial advisor from underwriting the same issue without proper waiver.

What is Rule G-23?

600

This yield curve shape is MOST associated with an upcoming recession.

What is an inverted yield curve?

700

This type of revenue bond has debt service tied to a pledge of sales tax or income tax.

What is a special tax bond?

700

Which rule governs OS delivery to EMMA?
A. G-32
B. G-21
C. G-17
D. G-23

What is Rule G-32?

700

This must occur when a delivery is made without proper legal transfer documents.

What is a reclamation?

700

Which rule governs municipal advisor conduct?
A. G-42
B. G-21
C. G-34
D. G-8

What is Rule G-42?

700

Which investor should avoid Auction Rate Securities (ARS)?
A. Long-term investors
B. Investors seeking liquidity
C. High-tax-bracket investors
D. Institutional investors

Who are short-term liquidity-driven investors?

800

Using 30/360, how many days are between March 1 and May 1?
A. 61
B. 62
C. 60
D. 59

What is 60 days?

800

This order type specifies which syndicate members receive the sales credit.What are designated orders?

What are designated orders?

800

Inter-dealer muni settlement occurs:
A. T+2
B. T+1
C. Same day
D. T+3

What is T+1?

800

This rule regulates advertising, including preliminary official statements used as ads.

What is Rule G-21?

800

This suitability principle requires understanding a client’s financial profile before recommending munis.

What is MSRB Rule G-19 (suitability)?

900

This is the formula for calculating accretion for an OID muni.

What is: (Par – Purchase Price) ÷ Years to Maturity?

900

This is the deadline for closing a syndicate account after an offering is complete.

What is 30 calendar days?

900

All unmatured coupons must accompany delivery of this type of bond.

What are bearer bonds?

900

This rule requires dealers to participate in periodic regulatory exams.

What is Rule G-16?

900

This bond type performs BEST during deflation.

What are long-term fixed-rate bonds?

1000

Which metric measures revenue bond strength?
A. PE Ratio
B. Liquidity coverage
C. Debt service coverage ratio
D. Market cap

What is the debt service coverage ratio?

1000

Who sets the reoffering scale in a negotiated underwriting?
A. Issuer
B. Bond counsel
C. Book-running manager
D. Senior advisor

Who is the book-running manager?

1000

This is required when a dealer holds customer securities.

What is segregation and safekeeping?

1000

Rule limiting gifts to $100?
A. G-20
B. G-37
C. G-23
D. G-15

What is Rule G-20?

1000

High debt service coverage ratio indicates:
A. Weak credit
B. Strong credit
C. High default risk
D. Poor liquidity

What is Strong credit?

M
e
n
u