Steph Harveys: OB Test 2 Jeopardy Template

Fetal Monitoring and Diagnostics

Contraception

Education for Mom

Mystery

Changes in Mom

100

When is the best time to perform an amniocentesis to detect genetic disorders?

A. 10-12 weeks of pregnancy
B. 15-20 weeks of pregnancy
C. 24-28 weeks of pregnancy
D. After 30 weeks of pregnancy

Answer: B. 15-20 weeks of pregnancy

100

8. Which of the following statements is correct regarding the use of an implantable contraceptive (Implanon)?

a) It is a long-acting, reversible contraception method that lasts for 5 years.
b) It is a single rod implant that provides contraception for 3 years.
c) It needs to be replaced every 6 months.
d) It should be removed after 10 years.

Answer: b) It is a single rod implant that provides contraception for 3 years.

100

What is the purpose of assessing the diagonal conjugate during prenatal visits?

A. To estimate the width of the pelvis.
B. To check for fetal heart tones.
C. To assess for preterm labor.
D. To assess maternal weight gain.

Answer: A. To estimate the width of the pelvis.

100

A nurse is calculating the estimated due date (EDD) for a pregnant patient using Naegele’s rule. The patient’s last menstrual period (LMP) was on May 15th. What is the patient’s estimated due date?

A. February 22nd
B. March 22nd
C. February 8th
D. April 15th

Correct Answer:

A. February 22nd

100

At what point in pregnancy is quickening typically felt by the mother?

A. First trimester
B. Early second trimester
C. Late second trimester
D. Third trimester

Correct Answer:

B. Early second trimester

200

At what gestational age is serum alpha-fetoprotein screening typically performed?

A. 8-12 weeks
B. 16-22 weeks
C. 24-28 weeks
D. 30-34 weeks

Answer: B. 16-22 weeks

200

Which of the following is a possible side effect of the Depo-Provera injection (IM injectable)?

A. Increased risk of ovarian cancer.
B. Bone loss.
C. High risk of blood clots.
D. Decreased menstrual bleeding.

B. Bone loss.

We would advise patients to take calcium supplements

200

Which of the following symptoms should prompt the patient to call the healthcare provider during the 2nd trimester (15-28 weeks)?

A. Mild back pain.
B. Severe headache and blurred vision.
C. Frequent urination.
D. Occasional Braxton Hicks contractions.

Answer: B. Severe headache and blurred vision.

200

A patient has had the following pregnancies:

2 full-term pregnancies (37 weeks or more)
1 preterm pregnancy (less than 37 weeks)
1 spontaneous abortion (miscarriage at 10 weeks)
2 living children What is the correct TPAL for this patient?
A. T2 P1 A1 L2
B. T3 P1 A0 L2
C. T1 P2 A1 L1
D. T2 P1 A0 L2

Correct Answer: A. T2 P1 A1 L2

200

A nurse is providing prenatal care education to a pregnant client. The nurse informs the client about the recommended schedule for prenatal visits. Which of the following is the correct schedule for prenatal visits during a typical pregnancy?

A. Every 2 weeks from the start of pregnancy until 36 weeks, then every week until delivery
B. Every 4 weeks up to 7 months, every 2 weeks from 29-36 weeks, and every week from 37 weeks until delivery
C. Every month during the first trimester and then once a week until delivery
D. Every 6 weeks for the entire pregnancy, with weekly visits starting at 32 weeks

Correct Answer: B.
Rationale: The correct schedule for prenatal visits is every 4 weeks up to 7 months, every 2 weeks from 29-36 weeks, and every week from 37 weeks until birth.

300

Which of the following statements are true about a non-reactive Non-Stress Test (NST)? (Select all that apply)

A. The baby’s heart rate shows two accelerations within 20 minutes.
B. The baby may be asleep, and maternal intake of crackers or juice could help stimulate movement.
C. A biophysical profile is commonly ordered after a non-reactive NST.
D. Non-reactive results indicate fetal well-being.

Correct Answers: B. The baby may be asleep, and maternal intake of crackers or juice could help stimulate movement. C. A biophysical profile is commonly ordered after a non-reactive NST.

300

A nurse is educating a client about the advantages of combined estrogen-progestin oral contraceptives. Which of the following should the nurse include as advantages of this method? (Select all that apply.)

a) Decreases menstrual blood loss
b) Increases the frequency of breakthrough bleeding
c) Regulates menstrual cycles
d) Decreases the risk of uterine fibroids
e) Reduces the risk of endometrial cancer

Answer:
a) Decreases menstrual blood loss
c) Regulates menstrual cycles
e) Reduces the risk of endometrial cancer

300

Which of the following are components of prenatal care during the 1st trimester (up to 14 weeks)? Select all that apply

A. Encourage healthy living and exercise.
B. Educate on the benefits of breastfeeding.
C. Teach about common discomforts of pregnancy.
D. Advise on avoiding all medications unless prescribed.
E. Encourage small frequent meals and voiding frequently.

Correct Answers:
- A. Encourage healthy living and exercise.
- C. Teach about common discomforts of pregnancy.
- D. Advise on avoiding all medications unless prescribed.
- E. Encourage small frequent meals and voiding frequently.

300

A patient’s obstetric history is documented as follows:

1 full-term pregnancy (37 weeks or more) with a single baby
1 preterm pregnancy (less than 37 weeks) resulting in twins
1 spontaneous abortion (miscarriage at 10 weeks)

What is the correct TPAL for this patient?

A. T1 P1 A1 L3
B. T1 P2 A1 L3
C. T2 P1 A1 L3
D. T2 P2 A1 L3

Correct Answer:

C. T2 P1 A1 L3

300

Which of the following are purposes of amniocentesis during pregnancy? (Select all that apply)

A. To detect genetic disorders and chromosomal abnormalities
B. To assess fetal lung maturity in later pregnancy
C. To screen for neural tube defects like spina bifida
D. To detect the gender of the baby
E. To monitor maternal blood pressure levels

Correct Answers:

A. To detect genetic disorders and chromosomal abnormalities
B. To assess fetal lung maturity in later pregnancy
C. To screen for neural tube defects like spina bifida
D. To detect the gender of the baby

400

Which of the following interventions are appropriate when late decelerations are observed, indicating placental insufficiency? (Select all that apply)

A. Place the mother in a left lateral position.
B. Administer a fluid bolus to the mother.
C. Increase the Pitocin dosage to strengthen contractions.
D. Administer oxygen to the mother.
E. Prepare for delivery, potentially a cesarean section.
F. Continue fetal monitoring without any further interventions.

Correct Answers:

A. Place the mother in a left lateral position.
B. Administer a fluid bolus to the mother.
D. Administer oxygen to the mother.
E. Prepare for delivery, potentially a cesarean section.

Explanation:

C. Increasing Pitocin is contraindicated because late decelerations are indicative of placental insufficiency, and Pitocin should be stopped to prevent further stress on the fetus.
F. Continuing to monitor without any intervention is inappropriate, as late decelerations require immediate action to ensure fetal well-being.

400

Which of the following are features of the Copper T IUD? Select all that apply

A. It works as a spermicide and inflames the endometrium.
B. It is effective for up to 5 years.
C. It prevents implantation by irritating the endometrium.
D. It can be used for up to 10 years.
E. The strings should be checked after menses.

(Correct answers: A, C, D, E)

400

Which of the following foods and practices should be avoided during pregnancy to reduce the risk of listeria and toxoplasmosis? (Select all that apply)

A. Soft cheeses such as brie, feta, and camembert.
B. Hot dogs or lunch meats unless they are reheated until steaming.
C. Raw milk and unpasteurized dairy products.
D. Consuming up to 12 oz of seafood per week.
E. Emptying cat litter boxes

Correct Answers:

A. Soft cheeses such as brie, feta, and camembert.
B. Hot dogs or lunch meats unless they are reheated until steaming.
C. Raw milk and unpasteurized dairy products.
E. Emptying cat litter boxes.

400

A patient’s last menstrual period (LMP) was September 10th. Using Naegele’s rule, what is the estimated due date (EDD)?

June 3rd

400

A nurse is educating a pregnant patient about the physical changes she may experience during pregnancy. Which of the following changes should the nurse tell the patient are common during pregnancy? (Select all that apply)

A. Increased urinary frequency during the first trimester
B. Development of a dark vertical line on the abdomen
C. Persistent and severe headaches
D. Dark pigmentation on the face
E. Mild abdominal cramping

Correct Answers:

A. Increased urinary frequency during the first trimester
B. Development of a dark vertical line on the abdomen (linea nigra)
D. Dark pigmentation on the face (chloasma)

500

Which of the following are components measured in a biophysical profile (BPP)? (Select all that apply)

A. Fetal breathing movements
B. Maternal heart rate
C. Fetal muscle tone
D. Fetal body movement
E. Amniotic fluid volume
F. Fetal non-stress test results

Correct Answers:

A. Fetal breathing movements
C. Fetal muscle tone
D. Fetal body movement
E. Amniotic fluid volume

Explanation:
A biophysical profile (BPP) assesses fetal well-being by measuring five components: fetal breathing movements, fetal muscle tone, fetal body movement, reactive fetal heart rate (from the non-stress test), and amniotic fluid volume. Maternal heart rate and non-stress test results are not directly part of the BPP but may be related to the evaluation

500

Which of the following statements are true regarding male and female condoms? Select all that apply

A. Male condoms made of natural skin (lamb) provide protection against STIs and HIV.
B. Female condoms provide protection against STIs and HIV.
C. Male condoms made of latex provide protection against STIs and HIV.
D. Male and female condoms can be used together for enhanced protection.
E. Female condoms should never be used with male condoms.
F. Natural skin (lamb) male condoms are the most effective type for STI prevention.

Correct Answers:

B. Female condoms provide protection against STIs and HIV.
C. Male condoms made of latex provide protection against STIs and HIV.
E. Female condoms should never be used with male condoms.

500

Which of the following statements are true regarding screening for Group B Streptococcus (GBS), gonorrhea, and chlamydia during the 37-40 week prenatal visit? (select all that apply)

A. Screening for GBS, gonorrhea, and chlamydia is done during the 37-40 week prenatal visit.
B. The screening for these infections is performed on all pregnant women, regardless of risk.
C. Screening for gonorrhea and chlamydia is recommended only for high-risk women.
D. Group B strep screening is only necessary for women with a history of preterm labor.
E. If GBS is positive, the mother should receive antibiotics during labor.

Correct Answers:

A. Screening for GBS, gonorrhea, and chlamydia is done during the 37-40 week prenatal visit.
B. The screening for these infections is performed on all pregnant women, regardless of risk.
E. If GBS is positive, the mother should receive antibiotics during labor.

500

A patient presents for a prenatal visit and shares the following obstetric history:

1 full-term pregnancy at 39 weeks
1 preterm pregnancy at 34 weeks that ended in a stillbirth
1 spontaneous abortion at 8 weeks
1 elective abortion at 10 weeks

Correct Answer: T1 P1 A2 L1

500

Which of the following are considered danger signs in the first trimester of pregnancy? (Select all that apply)

A. Abdominal cramping or pain
B. Vaginal spotting or bleeding
C. Absence of fetal heart tones
D. Prolonged nausea and vomiting
E. Dysuria

Correct Answers:

A. Abdominal cramping or pain
B. Vaginal spotting or bleeding
C. Absence of fetal heart tones
D. Prolonged nausea and vomiting
E. Dysuria